awm Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 3♣-X-5♣-Pass Is this pass forcing? Edited: What I mean is, do you prefer to play this pass as forcing in an established partnership. Not "would you assume this pass is forcing opposite a random BBO expert?" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 no, why would it be??? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 What kind of question is this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 This is not nearly as crazy a question as it would seem to someone who hasn't thought about it before. There is a very very good case for playing pass as forcing. But still it takes an agreement, you can't just assume it. I know several experts who play this as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 OK, so is the question instead "do you prefer to play pass as forcing here?"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 OK, so is the question instead "do you prefer to play pass as forcing here?"? I never have played it before so it's hard to say. Lets say when I first heard of it I thought it was insane. Now I bet if I got into a discussion about it with someone who feels strongly it should be forcing, my mind could be changed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 This is the least forcing pass I've ever seen. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 For some reason it makes more sens to me to play (3♣) 3x (5♣) P as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sceptic Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 If opps knew you play this as forcing, would it not be easy to always bid 5 of a minor after the double? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 If opps knew you play this as forcing, would it not be easy to always bid 5 of a minor after the double? That's kind of faulty logic. They are bidding 5 clubs when they think they are making 5 clubs whether you always have a forcing pass or not. If they aren't making 5 clubs, then the forcing pass agreement actually makes it less appealing to jump up the levels on hands you are pre-sacrificing because it lowers the chances of you actually buying the contract undoubled (small chance that it might be) or having them go on to a good contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Not FP. I think FP are underused so im sure there is plenty of sequence where its not FP but should be FP, however i dont think this one is one of them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
effervesce Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 NF. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Hi, no, we dont play it as forcing. I see some merrits, if the vulnerability is right,i.e. they are green, we are red.At any other vulnerability, those merrits loose a lotof weight. It also depends on what are your min. requirementsfor a t/o in direct seat, if you require a good openingto act, say +15, and you follow those guidelines rigid, than playing pass as forcing should work out ok mostof the time, but most partnership make the t/o lighter not stronger. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. I disagree with this. Then we're also a PH.... possibly a worse one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. I disagree with this. Then we're also a PH.... possibly a worse one. Do I need an opening hand to make a FP? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I don't think 6♣ dbl 7♣ pass is forcing, let alone 3-X-5-p :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. I disagree with this. Then we're also a PH.... possibly a worse one. Do I need an opening hand to make a FP? Obviously not. I'm just saying that I'd hope to have SOMETHING. And it's quite possible that I don't. Maybe LHO made a heavy preempt and RHO passed a limitish hand 1st seat and now is presuming partner doesn't have much. Forcing pass is 99% leading to disaster here. Double around 60%. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I do not play this as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I wouldn't be surprised if Eric Kokish recommends to play this sequence as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I wouldn't be surprised if Eric Kokish recommends to play this sequence as forcing. I'm pretty sure he's been advocating this for at least 20 years. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. I disagree with this. Then we're also a PH.... possibly a worse one. Do I need an opening hand to make a FP? Obviously not. I'm just saying that I'd hope to have SOMETHING. And it's quite possible that I don't. Maybe LHO made a heavy preempt and RHO passed a limitish hand 1st seat and now is presuming partner doesn't have much. Forcing pass is 99% leading to disaster here. Double around 60%. Do you know that or do you just 'feel' it? It's impossible for pass to not be forcing if rho is a passed hand. That means they have a random preempt and a passed hand trying to make 11 out of 13 tricks! Us being a passed hand is a red herring. Whatever we don't have, partner has. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 It's impossible for pass to not be forcing if rho is a passed hand. That means they have a random preempt and a passed hand trying to make 11 out of 13 tricks! Us being a passed hand is a red herring. Whatever we don't have, partner has. I've been thinking about this and I guess I don't understand what you're saying. Are you saying that if we pass we're saying 'partner bid whatever it was you were going to bid regardless of whether we agreed this is a forcing pass or not.' or are you saying that if we have a few scrappy points we have to double to prevent partner from going to slam. Because I don't see the difference. If you're saying that when we have 0 points partner must have 22+ real so he's going to take a bid after we pass then, sure, I agree that pass is forcing. But that doesn't make it a forcing pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass should be forcing if the 5♣ bidder was a passed hand. Otherwise, only by agreement. I disagree with this. Then we're also a PH.... possibly a worse one. Do I need an opening hand to make a FP? Obviously not. I'm just saying that I'd hope to have SOMETHING. And it's quite possible that I don't. Maybe LHO made a heavy preempt and RHO passed a limitish hand 1st seat and now is presuming partner doesn't have much. Forcing pass is 99% leading to disaster here. Double around 60%. Hi, you argue with extreme hands, which is certainlynot the most likely scenario.At least if one also keeps in mind, that preemptsget lighter every day. A forcing pass will lead sometimes to 5Cx=insteadof 5C, but more often to 5Cx-1 instead of 5C-1. If the frequency makes playing FP a equal proposition,I dont know, but you gain the ability to better judgeslam prospects. I dont play FP, but if I think longer about it, I thinkone could convince me, that it will at least break even. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 It's impossible for pass to not be forcing if rho is a passed hand. That means they have a random preempt and a passed hand trying to make 11 out of 13 tricks! Us being a passed hand is a red herring. Whatever we don't have, partner has. I've been thinking about this and I guess I don't understand what you're saying. Are you saying that if we pass we're saying 'partner bid whatever it was you were going to bid regardless of whether we agreed this is a forcing pass or not.' or are you saying that if we have a few scrappy points we have to double to prevent partner from going to slam. Because I don't see the difference. If you're saying that when we have 0 points partner must have 22+ real so he's going to take a bid after we pass then, sure, I agree that pass is forcing. But that doesn't make it a forcing pass. It means pass says you want to bid something and have good offense, which is only possible on the logic that we will never (I know I know, nothing is 100%) want to pass the hand out. We know this because because they have a preempt opposite a passed hand at the five level. Double is either a defensive hand or a bad hand. I honestly don't see what's hard about the concept, it is in fact quite logical. I think the comment I made that confused you was in reply to your saying essentially 'so what if rho is a passed hand, his hand could still be better than ours'. I was trying to say that isn't very relevant. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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