CSGibson Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 [hv=d=e&v=n&s=sajt3ha3daq4ckj82]133|100|Scoring: IMP(4♥)-X-(P)-4♠,(P)-P-(5♥)-5♠,(P)-?[/hv] First board in a round robin against the team that's the favorite to win. Do you think your hand is worth bidding slam? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mbodell Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 No. If you think the opponents are good then the fact that they could have passed out 4♠ if they were worried about 6♠ means I think you should pass. You may make it but I think I'd just take my 650 and think preempts work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 No. I want my partner to bid 5♠ next time too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted April 13, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 North bid 4♠ then 5♠ on [hv=d=e&v=n&n=sq8762hdj9753ca64&s=sajt3ha3daq4ckj82]133|200|Scoring: IMP(4♥)-X-(P)-4♠,(P)-P-(5♥)-5♠,(P)-?[/hv] These are the two hands together. Do you want to be in slam looking at them? How about on the lead of the 2 of diamonds going through the AQ? Has the N-S bidding been reasonable to this point? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 I don't want to be in slam on any lead, and NS's bidding has been impeccable so far. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 I don't want to be in slam on any lead, and NS's bidding has been impeccable so far. On the singleton diamond lead, it seems to be a 4-or-6 hand, so it would be right to bid 6♠. In fact, I think raising to 6♠ is better than it looks, since you probably need slam to be only around 40% to be good (as sometimes 5♠ would have been down, too). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 On the singleton diamond lead, it seems to be a 4-or-6 hand, so it would be right to bid 6♠.If you know it's a singleton, making 11 tricks is trivial - win the ace and play two rounds of spades. That would fail only if LHO had ♠Kxx and a doubleton diamond, or a singleton spade and ♦Kxx, or ♦K10xxx, or a spade void and ♦K10xx. In fact, I think raising to 6♠ is better than it looks, since you probably need slam to be only around 40% to be good (as sometimes 5♠ would have been down, too). I don't think 5♠ is going down often enough to give this argument merit. There are hardly any layouts where 5♠ goes down by force, although there are some where a particular lead may cause you to go wrong. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I know most wont play FP on this but for me its a clear FP. Partner could have suggest slam with a H void and premium values. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 There is an old saying: Don't punish your partner for making the right decision at the 5 level. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CSGibson Posted April 14, 2008 Author Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I know most wont play FP on this but for me its a clear FP. Partner could have suggest slam with a H void and premium values. Why is this a forcing pass? Won't partner make a bid at the 4 level with no points and five spades? Double is takeout, afterall. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 I would not bid slam, and, looking at the two hands, I would not want to be in slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Pass too many holes for 6♠ I hope she can make five. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 Why is this a forcing pass? Won't partner make a bid at the 4 level with no points and five spades? Double is takeout, afterall. Because for me X at 4D & higher is optionnal, it mean that if partner dont think he can make something he can pass the X no matter how weak he is. What would you do holding ? xxxxxxxxxxxxx So my X of 4H = im willing to play 4Hx vs a yardborough (im not saying i always like it).A 4S bid mean i think we can make 4S (and not "im afraid they make 4H"). So if the doubler is ready to play 4Hx and partner is hoping to make 4S then why not play FP ? Surely there is more slam probability then chance they make 5Hx. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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