DrTodd13 Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 With one partner, I play a 2/1 system and we've agreed to play Meckwellafter 1M-(X). With another partner, I play a forcing pass system in which1♣ is 9-13, 4+♥, etc. We have also agreed that on auctions of 1♣-(1♥) that we would also play Meckwell (except that X would substitute for XX). What does everybody think of the following specific agreements? 1. 1M-(X)-XX shows the next higher SUIT, we never transfer into NT. 1M-(X)- 2M-1 = good M raise, 1M-(X)-2M = crap M raise, etc.2. 1M-(X)-1/2N are natural.3. Transferring and then making a minimum bid shows exactly 4 of thesecond suit and is passable although it shows values.4. Transferring and then raising is invite.5. Transferring and then jump bidding a new suit shows exactly 4 and is GF.6. 1M-(X)-jump in a suit Z = 5+/5+ in the two suits besides M and Z. Todd Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 I like it, I am playing something similair. I have no idea what it is called, but it works well. Mike ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mishovnbg Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 -----------------------------------------Hi Todd! ------ I am fan of Mekwell science. Usage of natural NT bids after double, 2 way of raise major and transfers are ok. But transfer + fit can't be right solution, due to lose of tempo to show fit in competition as well as jumping with missfit 2 suiters sounds unreasonable for me. -----------------------------------------Misho Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poky Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 I play it this way: 1♥ - DblRdbl = 10+1♠ = 5+♣1NT = 5+♠2♣ = 5+♦2♦ = 7+ raise2♥ = 0-6 raise2♠ = fit-jump2NT = offensive 9+ raise3♣/3♦ = fit-jump 1♠ - DblRdbl = 10+1NT = 5+♣2♣ = 5+♦2♦ = 5+♥2♥ = 7+ raise2♠ = 0-6 raise2NT = offensive 9+ raise3♣/3♦/3♥ = fit-jump Rdbl is transfer to next higher suit only if the opening was 1♣/1♦. This structure works very fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mishovnbg Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 I play it this way: 1♥ - DblRdbl = 10+1♠ = 5+♣1NT = 5+♠2♣ = 5+♦2♦ = 7+ raise2♥ = 0-6 raise2♠ = fit-jump2NT = offensive 9+ raise3♣/3♦ = fit-jump 1♠ - DblRdbl = 10+1NT = 5+♣2♣ = 5+♦2♦ = 5+♥2♥ = 7+ raise2♠ = 0-6 raise2NT = offensive 9+ raise3♣/3♦/3♥ = fit-jump Rdbl is transfer to next higher suit only if the opening was 1♣/1♦. This structure works very fine. ---------------------------------------- Hi Poky! ------ Playing this way you can find usefull Garozzo 2-3 double. Ben (Inquiry) posted a little about it here in forum. ------------------------------------------------Misho Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poky Posted March 12, 2004 Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 Playing this way you can find usefull Garozzo 2-3 double. Ben (Inquiry) posted a little about it here in forum. Misho Sure. ;) I play inverted doubles long time, even before Ben posted his thread. But only in forcing situations when we show 20+ hcp on our line. They work fine in my system - a great improvement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrTodd13 Posted March 12, 2004 Author Report Share Posted March 12, 2004 Personally, I think 1M-(X)-XX to show 10+ is not a good use for a bid. Toomany times the next opponent will bid or preempt a suit that then makesyou and your partner try to find a suit and/or look for stoppers at the 3-level. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mishovnbg Posted March 13, 2004 Report Share Posted March 13, 2004 Personally, I think 1M-(X)-XX to show 10+ is not a good use for a bid. Toomany times the next opponent will bid or preempt a suit that then makesyou and your partner try to find a suit and/or look for stoppers at the 3-level. ---------------------------------------------Hi Todd! ------I agree and play rdbl as 2 places for penalty. With 1 place/bal hand&missfit I pass and dbl later or bid my suit, depend of optional double possibility. -----------------------------------------------------Misho Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted January 30, 2011 Report Share Posted January 30, 2011 Digged this one up... after a research on Inverted Doubles. Can anybody explain them to me please ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 30, 2011 Report Share Posted January 30, 2011 Personally, I think 1M-(X)-XX to show 10+ is not a good use for a bid. Toomany times the next opponent will bid or preempt a suit that then makesyou and your partner try to find a suit and/or look for stoppers at the 3-level.The main reason to play XX as value-showing is that over majors you'll be able to penalize much easier if you can establish that your side has at least half the deck. The difference between majors and minors is that the opponents have to play on the 2 level usually, and that often is enough to make it profitable to penalize, especially at MPs. Also, people often make slightly offshape doubles, since they cannot overcall a 4 card suit. Overall it's MUCH more likely to want to penalize after a 1M opener from partner. I think it's essential to have XX as values, otherwise you'll get robbed quite often. I know if my opponents were playing something like this, I would start doubling on 4432 8 counts, and watch them crash and burn. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted January 30, 2011 Report Share Posted January 30, 2011 Close. but as mtvesuvius points out XX--> next suit ** must have 3+DT. ** Why a signoff in that lowest suit? Won't be allowed to play there.So XX: 3+DT and next suit; or 3+DT and can handle likely developments. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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