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Is this hand a 5D bid?


cccheung

Do you pre-empt 5D?  

27 members have voted

  1. 1. Do you pre-empt 5D?

    • Yes
      23
    • No
      4


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White to red, my partner with this hand and pass as dealer:

[hv=d=s&v=e&s=s98xxhjxdjt9xck9x]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

Then bidding goes:

(1S) 2N (3S) ?

 

He bid 5D. I think this is not right at all, but he said it is automatic.

 

Will you bid 5D?

 

 

*** Edited Later ****

Sorry that the confusion. Yes, partner is south, we are white, they are red.

 

Bidding goes:

P (1S) 2N (3S)

5D (5S) 6D (X)

 

After partner's 5D, I tried 6D with this and got doubled:

-

Kx

AKQxxx

Txxxx

 

6DX -3 -500 (HA, CAQJ) while 5S -1 (HK, DA)

 

I blamed my partner for his 5D bid (as I think it normally is 5card)

 

Do you think we are unlucky, or I shall not bid 6D?

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If I read correctly, you say you're white vs their red, but the hand diagram indicates the opposite.

 

I bid 5 if White vs Red inspite of having 4 little , but pass if Red vs White.

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Hand and vul appears clear and 5D seems normal.

 

At the apparent vulnerability you should not (normally, without agreement) be bidding 2N on a hand that does not want your partner to go to five.

 

The implication of your post is that you should have been doubling to show strength rather than 2N to invite a sacrifice.

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5D without a blink..... just think of what is the worse hand partner can have for his 2N vulnerable overcall....

http://forums.bridgebase.com/index.php?showtopic=24852

 

Dealer: East

Vul: None

Scoring: IMP

x

xx

AJxxx

KT87x

 

So let's upgrade the diamond and downgrade the club, to get rid of the duplicates...

 

[hv=n=sxhxxdaqxxxcqt87x&s=s98xxhjxdjt9xck9x]133|200|[/hv]

 

I don't have a point- just thought it was interesting to bring the two threads together.

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Hand and vul appears clear

Clear to you maybe - still not clear to me.

 

White to red, my partner with this hand and pass as dealer:

Dealer:  South

Vul:  E/W

Scoring:  IMP

 

♠  98xx

♥  Jx

♦  JT9x

♣  K9x

 

 

 

Then bidding goes:

(1S) 2N (3S) ?

 

White to Red suggests we are white and they are red.

 

But Dealer South opened 1 and our side overcalled 2NT so we are EW. And E/W are vulnerable so maybe White to Red means ourside is vulnerable.

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Hand and vul appears clear

Clear to you maybe - still not clear to me.

 

White to red, my partner with this hand and pass as dealer:

Dealer:  South

Vul:  E/W

Scoring:  IMP

 

♠  98xx

♥  Jx

♦  JT9x

♣  K9x

 

 

 

Then bidding goes:

(1S) 2N (3S) ?

 

White to Red suggests we are white and they are red.

 

But Dealer South opened 1 and our side overcalled 2NT so we are EW. And E/W are vulnerable so maybe White to Red means ourside is vulnerable.

Partner, who is Dealer, and South, and NV, all at the same time, passed with the hand we can see.

West, who is vulnerable, opened 1.

North, who is OP, and NV (coincidentally, the same vul as South), bid 2NT, we haven't seen his cards.

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White to red, my partner with this hand and pass as dealer:

<!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> South </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> E/W </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </span> </th> <td> 98xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> Jx </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> JT9x </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> K9x </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end -->

 

Then bidding goes:

(1S) 2N (3S) ?

 

He bid 5D. I think this is not right at all, but he said it is automatic.

 

Will you bid 5D?

It is confusing since partner's pass is not shown in the bidding instead we are told south passes...I missed it too.....:)

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Hand and vul appears clear

Clear to you maybe - still not clear to me.

 

White to red, my partner with this hand and pass as dealer:

Dealer:  South

Vul:  E/W

Scoring:  IMP

 

♠  98xx

♥  Jx

♦  JT9x

♣  K9x

 

 

 

Then bidding goes:

(1S) 2N (3S) ?

 

White to Red suggests we are white and they are red.

 

But Dealer South opened 1 and our side overcalled 2NT so we are EW. And E/W are vulnerable so maybe White to Red means ourside is vulnerable.

Partner, who is Dealer, and South, and NV, all at the same time, passed with the hand we can see.

West, who is vulnerable, opened 1.

North, who is OP, and NV (coincidentally, the same vul as South), bid 2NT, we haven't seen his cards.

ah i understand now :)

 

Sorry for the confusion.

 

5 looks normal enough.

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Sorry that the confusion. Yes, partner is south, we are white, they are red.

 

Bidding goes:

P (1S) 2N (3S)

5D (5S) 6D (X)

 

After partner's 5D, I tried 6D with this hand and got doubled:

-

Kx

AKQxxx

Txxxx

 

6DX -3 -500 (HA, CAQJ) while 5S -1 (HK, DA)

 

I blamed my partner for his 5D bid (as I think it normally is 5card)

 

Do you think we are unlucky, or I shall not bid 6D?

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Firstly I don't agree with passing as dealer with this hand. I would have opened 1.

 

When you pass and then come in with 2NT it makes your hand look preemptive in nature.

 

Regardless, 2NT at this point has shown your hand, supposedly. Partner could have any number of hands to bid 5 and holding your hand I'm not sure what those could be. I think you should trust him to know what the right level is and whether it's right to sacrifice over 5 since he should have more total information than you.

 

5 is definitely not an invitation to slam. And partner seems to have done right by taking a sac over a makeable 4 and pushing them to an unmakeable 5.

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Firstly I don't agree with passing as dealer with this hand. I would have opened 1.

Is there some bug in everyone else's web browser that makes this auction particularly hard to understand?

 

Dealer had 98xx Jx JT9x K9x. He passed, and then bid 5. The player with void Kx AKQxxx Txxxx was in third seat, and overcalled 2NT at his first opportunity.

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Firstly I don't agree with passing as dealer with this hand.  I would have opened 1.

Is there some bug in everyone else's web browser that makes this auction particularly hard to understand?

 

Dealer had 98xx Jx JT9x K9x. He passed, and then bid 5. The player with void Kx AKQxxx Txxxx was in third seat, and overcalled 2NT at his first opportunity.

oh yeah you're right :P

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We have 9 trumps and they have 8 or 9. Add one trick for the double fit. The purity is better than average and sometimes they have 9 trumps. So there is a good chance of 19 total tricks. At least there should be 18 in which case 5 is a good save against 4= (wins 620-500=120) but not against 4+1 (loses 800-650 = 150).

 

I bid 5.

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6DX -3 -500 (HA, CAQJ) while 5S -1 (HK, DA)

 

Do you think we are unlucky, or I shall not bid 6D?

I don't think you are unlucky, last time I checked you needed 3 tricks to beat 5, and 500 is better than 650.

 

BTW 5 with double fit is automatic.

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