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navit

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It depends on your techniques.

 

1. If you play Walsh, then you bid 1. You don't introduce diamonds with the plan of a reverse unless you have longer diamonds.

 

2. If you play Standard, you bid 1 because you bid 4-card suits up the line.

 

3. If you play Montreal Relay, you bid 1 because you do not have five spades.

 

4. If you play really really old school, you bid 1 unless your diamonds are worse than Qxxx and your spades are Qxxx+.

 

5. If you play Golady, you bid 2, artificial GF (or limit raise).

 

6. I'm not sure, but I assume that you bid 1 if playing Transfer Walsh.

 

7. In any school, with certain parameters to the hand (e.g., the spades are lousy, points concentrated in the two short suits, etc.), you might even bid 2NT or 3NT with 4-4 pointeds, maybe.

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1. If you play Walsh, then you bid 1. You don't introduce diamonds with the plan of a reverse unless you have longer diamonds.

 

2. If you play Standard, you bid 1 because you bid 4-card suits up the line.

Yeah. I prefer the first, but the second is normal.

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I mostly agree with Ken.

 

However, I might bid 1 playing Walsh, depending on suit qualities and what follow-up agreements we have.

 

Playing T-Walsh, there's no doubt about responding 1 with 4-4 in the pointed suits.

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Though I won't disagree with what others have said, personally I always bid the major. That's because

 

(i) If I'm playing with a good or familiar partner, I will probably have agreed a Walsh-type style.

 

(ii) If I'm playing with a weak or unfamiliar partner, bidding the major simplifies the auction: there will often be no need to show diamonds at all, whereas if I start with 1 we still have to work out whether there is a heart fit.

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My style is :

 

1Maj unless I see some slam potential.

 

With 14 hcp I don't need partner to have that much extra to be at least invitational to slam if we can find a fit.

 

So I would bid 1 unless the diamonds are particularly bad or perhaps if the hand was very no trump oriented - soft values.

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