kgr Posted March 6, 2008 Report Share Posted March 6, 2008 [hv=d=e&s=saxhadkjtxxcakqjt]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]You plan to open 1♦ and are happy that if you follow it with 2♣ that it is forcing in your system.But to your surprise your RHO opens 1♠. What is your plan?2NT and 4NT are both for the minors, or do you start with a DBL? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted March 6, 2008 Report Share Posted March 6, 2008 2NT WTP Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted March 6, 2008 Report Share Posted March 6, 2008 2N, the problems will come later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 6, 2008 Report Share Posted March 6, 2008 2NT, this hand might become easy. :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted March 6, 2008 Report Share Posted March 6, 2008 2N followed by 3♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 2NT, hoping to gather some info before making a decision. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 As the others, 2NT followed by 3S. Btw I would not have opened 1D if rho had passed. I would have opened 2C - after all, as little as Q of D gives me an excellent 5m and I don't think that would be enough for my partner to respond with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 2NT now, think later ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 As the others, 2NT followed by 3S. Btw I would not have opened 1D if rho had passed. I would have opened 2C - after all, as little as Q of D gives me an excellent 5m and I don't think that would be enough for my partner to respond with. I agree that as little as the ♦Q gives you nearly 100% play for 5♦, but that is not the issue with the 2♣ opening. I want to get my suits in right away, and I really do not believe that the auction is going to go 1♦ - All Pass when I have only 3 major suit cards. I would open 1♦. As for the problem as given, 2NT seems clear, followed by 3♠ if it is available. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 I agree with the 1♦ opening. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted March 7, 2008 Author Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 Thanks for the answers.If you bid 2NT followed by 3♠, will you ever stop below 5♣?[hv=d=e&n=sxxxhxxdqxxcxxxxx&s=saxhadkjtxxcakqjt]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]I did bid 4NT:(1S)-4NT-(P)-5CAll Pass- - Because bidding and play was fast, I don't know how bidding would have gone if you bid 2NT. LHO did have a bad 6 card ♥, but was probably to weak to bid over 2NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 Am I missing something? Why would you want to stop below 5♣? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted March 7, 2008 Author Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 Am I missing something? Why would you want to stop below 5♣? Not here, but I wondered if you would ever stop below 5♣.If bidding would go eg:(1S)-2NT-(P)-3C(P)-3S-(P)-4C - - BTW: it looks like South hand would be better if Clubs were: AKQJx ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted March 7, 2008 Report Share Posted March 7, 2008 Sure, it is possible that you might want to stop below 5♣. But it is awfully difficult to diagnose that situation, especially when the opponents open the bidding. And, yes, having AKQJx of clubs is potentially better than having AKQJT of clubs, as it offers the possibility of reaching dummy with a club while only decreasing marginally your chances of running the club suit without a loss. That is something that one takes into account qualitatively during the auction rather than quantitatively. For example, suppose you have AKQJx of clubs rather than AKQJT of clubs, and partner has: xxxxxxx98xTxx Now, even though partner has a zero count, you have a reasonable chance of scoring 11 tricks in clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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