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Trick 1 play problem


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[hv=d=w&v=n&n=skxxhqt9daqtxckxx&s=sxxxhaj8xxdkxxcj9]133|200|Scoring: IMP

(1)-X-(P)-2

(P)-3-(X)-3

(P)-3NT-(P)-4

(P)-P-(P)[/hv]

 

West leads a small club (second lowest you can't see I believe)

 

As an aside, what do you think of the bidding? At the table partner and I were on the same page with regards to this sequence being choice of games, but could not decide what the difference between 2N and 3N (over 2) should be.

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Bidding seems strange.

 

Agree with double and 2.

 

I would have passed 2 as North. Having doubled once there is no need to bid more. Also would have passed 3, and as South I would have passed 3NT.

 

The play is a guess. I suppose if the K is wrong, you need to play the K and have it win at trick 1, before they knock out the K - ie if you play low, RHO wins the A and shifts to a spade, and you could lose 2 spades, a club and a heart before you can pitch a loser on the diamonds. But how likely is it that RHO would pass initially, then double with the queen? Doesn't seem likely, but I suppose that is your best chance to make this contract.

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I think you should play the king. If RHO has the club ace and you play low then RHO will find the spade shift and you can't make it anyway. This seems a normal ace-underlead situation and I assume the double shows top-three honor.
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