Jump to content

Survey for a friend


awm

Your guess:  

46 members have voted

  1. 1. Your guess:

    • Forcing
      19
    • Not Forcing
      27


Recommended Posts

Careful, this is a four-handed auction:

 

1 - X - P - 2

P - 2NT - P - 3

 

Of course the 2NT bid shows something like 19-21. What do you think about 3?

 

If you have some agreement in a regular partnership about this sequence that differs from what you think is "standard" feel free to comment.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I don't see any huge problem with playing Wolff here, but I think that since the hand is already limited, it may be better not to. Without discussion, I would assume 3 is nonforcing, since it seems more valuable to have a 4-5 minor signoff than some hand which is slammish in clubs, given that I have already limited my hand with 2. I can construct a few hands where presenting 5 as an alternative to 3NT is rational, but I think they are too infrequent to seriously consider.

 

In general, it may be better to play a system with as many signoffs as possible.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If I had to guess what Standard is I would guess that forcing is Standard. If discussed I usually play that suit non-reverse bids are NF in these situations. No idea which is theoretically superior.

There's a trend that rebids the suit with a min and bids something else on the side with a not-so-hopeless hand. I like this.

 

In this case, a min hand either bids 3 with 5 or passes 2NT with 4 hearts only. A better hand bids 3m and sees if pard can bid 3 with 3 cards now.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It seems to me like forcing makes more sense. if you have a terrible hand with 5+ hearts, you can just rebid 3. If you have a terrible balanced hand, you probably just pass and take your medicine in 2n. If you have a terrible hand with 4 hearts and 5 or 6 clubs, then you probably bid 2 not 2, since you want to get to the better part score when you're not worried about game. You could easily have a reasonable hand, say 5-8 with 4 hearts and 5 clubs (or 5 hearts and 4 clubs) that bids 2 since hearts is the most likely game. Now you want to be able to show your clubs and have partner show 3-card heart support, and get you to 4 or even 5 if it's right.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

It seems to me like forcing makes more sense. if you have a terrible hand with 5+ hearts, you can just rebid 3. If you have a terrible balanced hand, you probably just pass and take your medicine in 2n. If you have a terrible hand with 4 hearts and 5 or 6 clubs, then you probably bid 2 not 2, since you want to get to the better part score when you're not worried about game. You could easily have a reasonable hand, say 5-8 with 4 hearts and 5 clubs (or 5 hearts and 4 clubs) that bids 2 since hearts is the most likely game. Now you want to be able to show your clubs and have partner show 3-card heart support, and get you to 4 or even 5 if it's right.

I think the problem here is that rebidding a 5 card suit isn't always wise.

 

If anything the NT bidder has denied good heart support, . Why would we be forcing ourselves to play a 5-2 here?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Why would we be forcing ourselves to play a 5-2 here?

huh??? for the same reason you transfer to the major with a weak hand after a 1NT opener

This is a different situation Nuno.

 

When you make a transfer, the NT opener's length is unknown. Here, the doubler had an option to raise, or cue, to confirm a heart fit.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

This isn't a Wolff situation. Is it really likely a hand that can only make a simple 2 call wants to suddenly go slamming?

No, but maybe we are talking about

a hand, which is unsure about the

best game contract.

 

Afterall the 2NT rebid canceled the promise

of support for all other suits, the 2NT bid

may be based on a hand with only 2 hearts.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If I had to guess what Standard is I would guess that forcing is Standard. If discussed I usually play that suit non-reverse bids are NF in these situations. No idea which is theoretically superior.

Contrast this auction with one like (1)-X-(p)-2-(p)-2. Now I think it is clearly better to play 3 as NF since you could bid 2 to GF.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Why would we be forcing ourselves to play a 5-2 here?

huh??? for the same reason you transfer to the major with a weak hand after a 1NT opener

This is a different situation Nuno.

 

When you make a transfer, the NT opener's length is unknown. Here, the doubler had an option to raise, or cue, to confirm a heart fit.

Well, when advancer is broke, even a 5-2 fit usually rolls in more tricks than NT. That's the point.

 

Besides, if you run a simulation you'll probably find out that pard's heart expectancy is closer to 3 than to 2. Why? Because LHO has 5 spades, giving pard a higher chance to have 3 of those.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

3H would def be NF as responder could just bid 3S with a COG. Responder is allowed to have 6 hearts and no points.

 

3m is less clear, I think my meta agreements with my partners would make it forcing but I think NF is better.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Good problem: I will try to remember to ask my partners this question: I don't know what standard is.

 

Question: with 2=4=2=5 bust, would we bid 2 or 2?

 

Certainly, with that hand and a 1 opening, we'd all bid 1. But would we do so over 1, where survival is our immediate goal? After all, in standard advancing methods over a takeout double of 1, 2 is very wide range and thus, because a ten trick game is more attractive than an 11 trick game, 2 is more likely to attract a raise than is 2.

 

I think that this issue colours the correct approach to the posed question. If we respond 2 with the 4=5 bust, we have significantly reduced the number of hands to which we need to cater, playing 3 as NF.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Good problem: I will try to remember to ask my partners this question: I don't know what standard is.

 

Question: with 2=4=2=5 bust, would we bid 2 or 2?

 

Certainly, with that hand and a 1 opening, we'd all bid 1. But would we do so over 1, where survival is our immediate goal? After all, in standard advancing methods over a takeout double of 1, 2 is very wide range and thus, because a ten trick game is more attractive than an 11 trick game, 2 is more likely to attract a raise than is 2.

 

I think that this issue colours the correct approach to the posed question. If we respond 2 with the 4=5 bust, we have significantly reduced the number of hands to which we need to cater, playing 3 as NF.

I bid 2 with that hand.

 

Maybe you are right and this has serious implications for the nature of a subsequent 3 when partner shows a very strong hand with 2NT.

 

Nevertheless our current meta-agreement over 2NT is that 3minor is NF and 3Major is Forcing.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Question: with 2=4=2=5 bust, would we bid 2 or 2?

Playing ELC, 2 is obvious. Else it's a toss.

 

If, however, one agrees to always bid 2, then 2+3 over 2NT is even more forcing. There may be a point in 3 NF playing the other way (ELC or 2 mandatory). Still, I prefer forcing.

 

god, that was messy

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...