hammberry Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 We play a simple 2 over 1 game-forcing system.After 1S - 2C; 2H - ??what's the difference between responder's 2NT and 3NT?One view is that 3NT = 15-17 (which means a 5-5 opener must guess whether to rebid his hearts)Another view is that 3NT means "I really want to play here; I'm 12 - 14 with great stoppers and no desire for further exploration" (which leaves 2NT covering a lot of ground) Which view is more commonly held, and which makes more sense? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 3N showing extras is much more common (I think 15 is too light though). I also don't think opener has to guess regarding major suit shapes, responder should always be 2-3 in the majors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 My usual disclaimer that I am no 2/1 expert. On general principles you want 2NT to be much more common than 3NT. Since we have already established a game force we want to preserve the bidding space to enable us economically to find our best fit. Therefore jumping to 3NT on some non-descript minimum seems completely wrong to me. In similar situations (e.g. over a 4th suit force) we use the jump to show extras - 15-17 for us and a simple bid is 12-14 or so OR 18-19. With the 18-19 hand we will freely raise to 4NT to make a quantitative invite later. I notice that Justin says people play the jumps a bit stronger than 15-17 - he would know better than I do what works. Another possibility for the jump to 3NT is a hand with a strong desire to play there based on a good (double or better) stopper in the unbid suit. Ideally you would also have a narrow range for this jump. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brianshark Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 I think 2NT would show 12-14 or 18-19 and 3NT would show 15-17. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
finally17 Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 I think 2NT would show 12-14 or 18-19 and 3NT would show 15-17. This is how I do things, which probably "speaks for itself" that it's not the best way (that is to say, I have no sense of what is best). With the noted 4N rebid on the big hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 I also play 3NT as 15-17 but a descriptive hand. As Justin says, 2-3 in the majors on this auction. So 2NT does not deny 15-17 points. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 I think 2NT would show 12-14 or 18-19 and 3NT would show 15-17. Yes, that's what Lawrence says and I think it's quite universal. Agree with Justin and Han that it should be 2-3 in the majors. Not sure if I saw that explicitly in Lawrence's books but it is common sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 22, 2008 Report Share Posted February 22, 2008 That would contradict with what Lawrence says apparently because if you play that then 2NT does not show 12-14 or 18-19. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 23, 2008 Report Share Posted February 23, 2008 Well at least 2N must be 12-14 or 18+ if it is a 2344 or 2335 :) Not sure what Lawrence would do with a 2245 or 1345 15-17 count. Maybe 2♠ with the first one and 3♦ or 3♣ with the second. Maybe 2N. Just guessing, I don't have his book here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted February 23, 2008 Report Share Posted February 23, 2008 Where did this 15-17 point range come from, it seems like people are just copying the 1N opening range lol. I just like to play it as 16-17, I do not view 15 as a problem hand type, and would like a 2 point range a lot given the amount of room this jump takes up (leading partner to have to guess, so the narrower the range the better). It seems like 16-17 are really the problem ranges where you feel awkward in the auction, 15 I'm quite content to treat as a minimum basically. If we have enough for a slam partner will do something. As a side note, with my strong club partners we play this as 17-18 since we open quite light and cannot have as much as 16 points anyways. But in a standard system forcing to 4N with 18 should work out fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted February 23, 2008 Report Share Posted February 23, 2008 Where did this 15-17 point range come from, it seems like people are just copying the 1N opening range lol. I'm quite sure I have seen it written a number of times and incorporated into systems. Not saying I agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted February 23, 2008 Report Share Posted February 23, 2008 That would contradict with what Lawrence says apparently because if you play that then 2NT does not show 12-14 or 18-19. Well if you are not 2-3 in the majors then you either have six in your minor or four in the other minor that you can bid, so it's possible to incorporate both styles. Although I would hate that lol as I'm sure most of us would. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted February 24, 2008 Report Share Posted February 24, 2008 The answer to the OP might depend on what 1♠ 3NT shows. if this shows some balanced range then it seems wasteful to have 1♠ 2♣ 3NT (or 2NT) show the same range. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArcLight Posted February 25, 2008 Report Share Posted February 25, 2008 From my notes on Mike Lawrences 2/1 books and his CD. The 1M 2C - 3NT bid:Tough one! 2NT shows 12-14 or 18,19, so what’s left is 15-17. But that’s covered by a 1NT opener. Mike Lawrence suggests it shows 2 small cards in pards suit. (1H – 2D – 3NT). However this will not occur frequently. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted February 25, 2008 Report Share Posted February 25, 2008 The answer to the OP might depend on what 1♠ 3NT shows. if this shows some balanced range then it seems wasteful to have 1♠ 2♣ 3NT (or 2NT) show the same range. That doesn't necessarily follow since on the slower auction you have emphasised a suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted February 25, 2008 Report Share Posted February 25, 2008 The answer to the OP might depend on what 1♠ 3NT shows. if this shows some balanced range then it seems wasteful to have 1♠ 2♣ 3NT (or 2NT) show the same range. That doesn't necessarily follow since on the slower auction you have emphasised a suit. That is true, but since 1♠ 3NT can only show a single range, it seems perverse that for that range you have two ways to get there, one of which emphasises a suit, but for other ranges you only have one way of getting there and that way mentions a suit you may not want to emphasise! Of course, if you play 1NT as absolutely forcing then you can send one range via ...1NT...3NT (13-15?) and another by a direct 3NT(16-18?) without emphasising a suit. If you were playing something like that, then going via 2♣ emphasises the ♣ suit. Referring back to the OP, I would say that after 1♠ 2♣ 2♥ 3NT says "I want to play in 3NT I am not interested to hear anything more about your hand" (so probably not many extras, not 3♥, but well stocked in the minors) and 2NT shows any hand which wants to hear more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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