finally17 Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 Anything else is a violation of sovereignty I believe. I have no idea what you mean by a violation of sovereignty. I don't believe it's a legal concept. We have treaties with other nations, and those have a power equal to the Constitution. If we don't have a treaty with another nation, there is no legal concept of 'sovereignty'. We couldn't care less if you violate their laws or not, and we don't care if our agents violate their laws. Pretty much, we expect that our laws extend to the entire planet where we don't have a treaty to indicate otherwise, and we also expect other nations to feel the same way. Here's a simple example: Piracy. An American ship gets attacked by pirates in international waters. Do you think that no American law has been broken? Do you think those pirates cannot be tried in an Amercian court? The history of trying and hanging pirates predates the Constitution, and any semblence of international law. The concept that laws extend past borders is a pretty old one. Sovereignty See specifically the section in the middle "sovereignty in international law." Your example is completely meaningless, the open seas are an ungoverned region. I don't know the specifics of trying and punishing of pirates, today or 300 years ago, but to do so would not violate any other nation's sovereignty. If you really believe our treaties hold the same power as the Constitution, you're fooling yourself. Whether they are supposed to, legally, or not, I can not say, but I doubt sincerely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 See specifically the section in the middle "sovereignty in international law." Your example is completely meaningless, the open seas are an ungoverned region. I don't know the specifics of trying and punishing of pirates, today or 300 years ago, but to do so would not violate any other nation's sovereignty. If you really believe our treaties hold the same power as the Constitution, you're fooling yourself. Whether they are supposed to, legally, or not, I can not say, but I doubt sincerely. Going backwards, I meant legally that treaties have the same force as the Constitution. In fact, some people have argued that treaties actually have *more* power than the Constitution. I'll find sources for that if you'd like. I read your link, and it doesn't tell me anything new. National sovereignty doesn't exist. Governments have sovereignty. If the United States declares that the Grand Poobah In Exile is sovereign of a nation, then we are not 'violating sovereignty' by breaking their laws. They actually named examples of that, like Norway's Government in Exile. If we recognize the other government (or some portion of the other government), then we have a de facto treaty with them. If we do not accept their government as legitimate, then the zone is either ruled by a different government we deem as the sovereign or it is lawless. There's really no such thing as violating sovereignty. All there is is refusing to recognize sovereignty, which we do all the time (such as with Noriega). So, for example, if you kill somebody or sell American secrets in Iran, then you have committed a crime in a lawless region, as last I checked the U.S. considered the Shah to be the leader of Iran and he had no successor. So how is this different from piracy? Virtually all of the Guatanamo cases were picked up in lawless regions. ---------------do not read below this line---------------------------Article 6 - Debts, Supremacy, OathsAll Debts contracted and Engagements entered into, before the Adoption of this Constitution, shall be as valid against the United States under this Constitution, as under the Confederation. This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding. The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the Members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States, shall be bound by Oath or Affirmation, to support this Constitution; but no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States.---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted February 16, 2008 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 What bothers me - especially about Guantanamo Bay - is the gaming. Deliberate, clearly stated, heartless and unethical gaming of the United States "rule of law". There is no longer a "rule of law" in the U.S. What “the rule of law” means is that everyone accused of the same crime answers to the same law and is accorded the same process as everyone else. It also means that all accused are presumed innocent until proven guilty in a court of LAW. With terrorists and insurgents, though, the government determines whether an accused is accorded these "rule of law" rights in federal-court or is denied "rule of law" in a torture/military-tribunal. Zacharias Moussaoui (one of the military’s 20th hijackers on 9/11), Yaser Hamdi, Jose Padilla, Timothy McVeigh, and many other accused terrorists have been accorded the federal-court route. The accused terrorists at Guantanamo are being forced into the torture/ military-tribunal route - and without any habeus corpus or oversight, no manner to challenge the legality of the actions. The government gets to decide which of these two routes an "accused" will take. That is not rule of law. That is governmental arbitrary discretion. That is government above the law. Guantemeno is not a prisoner-of-war camp, as there is no declared war. Guantanemo holds political prisoners believed to oppose U.S. interests. In this it is not a prison - it is a Gulag. Let's don't kid ourselves and pretend to be a nation of laws and the "rule of law" when clearly we are no longer so. If this is what the majority wants, I can only argue from a minority position and accept the majority will; however, before joining the majority, realize that standing up to terrorists does not mean abandoning the very laws, principles, and way of life that lie at the very heart of this nation. The truly patriotic message is to say, no, we won't let anyone do this to our country, whether from outside or from within. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 Well, it is either "an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth" or it is; "we don't care that you would torture us in your country, you are in the custody and protection of the United States of America and are therefore protected by its laws and covenants and we will respect those rights as our application of them is our assurance that they will be applied to us." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted February 16, 2008 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 TheGuardian.UK.Com reports on comments by Geroge Bush during a BBC interview. In a wide-ranging interview, Bush: · Defended the existence of Guantánamo Bay where many of those caught up in the US "war on terror" are held, and claimed that the US was a defender of human rights. Agree or disagree? · Insisted the US still occupied the moral high ground worldwide. World? What say ye? · Stood by his decision to remove Saddam Hussein and claimed he would be vindicated as long as the US did not leave Iraq prematurely. I don't remember "removing Saddam" as the basis for this decision. If this were the sole reason, was the decision validated? But his most controversial remarks were over waterboarding. He told the BBC's Matt Frei: "To the critics, I ask them this: when we, within the law, interrogate and get information that protects ourselves and possibly others in other nations to prevent attacks, which attack would they have hoped that we wouldn't have prevented? "And so, the United States will act within the law. We'll make sure professionals have the tools necessary to do their job within the law." He claimed the families of victims of the July 7 terror attacks in London would understand his position. "I suspect the families of those victims understand the nature of killers. What people gotta understand is that we'll make decisions based upon law. We're a nation of law." But Bush was undercut by a senior official in his administration who admitted yesterday, for the first time, that waterboarding is illegal. L'etat ce moi? Bush is the spokesperson for a particular belief system, so don't take these questions as a personal attack on him - rather, the question to me is how much support is there for this belief system? Is this belief system what the majority believes to be right? Or is Bush espousing a minority view and is that minority then using the power of the government to enforce that view? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 Bush is the spokesperson for a particular belief system, so don't take these questions as a personal attack on him - rather, the question to me is how much support is there for this belief system? Is this belief system what the majority believes to be right? Or is Bush espousing a minority view and is that minority then using the power of the government to enforce that view? as usual, imo, it depends on how one approaches the issue... philosophically speaking, in an argument between security and liberty i choose liberty... but practically speaking (and if you're a politician, especially if you're the president), i don't know how i'd react... do i always act as my conscious prompts? do i always act in a manner i perceive to be in the best interests of the citizens of my country? do i sometimes act one way and sometimes another? i imagine it would be an impossible task for me, which is why politics has never interested me - unless, as i've said before, i can be benevolent dictator :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
finally17 Posted February 16, 2008 Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 I'm basically done with this discussion, partly because I've lost interest, partly because it's lost focus, partly because my understanding was very incomplete (demonstrated below), partly because well.... But the question was raised about Manuel Noriega, so I thought I'd post the more educated information I gathered, in case anyone else was interested in my finding out more. I happen to know a man who headed up this competition: Jessup International Law Moot Court Competition for several years and someone who worked directly under him, so I sent them the following question: "What enabled the US to try, convict, sentence, and hold Manuel Noriega as a criminal." I received the following answers...I can inquire for more detail if anyone is interested: From the underling: "I think, by the way, that the answer is he was convicted of crimes under US domestic law that reached into the US, and that the US didn't recognize him as the leader of Panama, so he didn't have immunity to prosecution." Response: "That's not really international law though, is it? I mean, it's just domestic law in a red suit and fake white beard." From the director-dude: "Well it's international law to the extent that internationallaw (conflicts of law, in this case) permits the US to extend its jurisdiction to actswhich occurred outside of the US but have effects within the US (so-called "objective territoriality.") But yeah, the actual substantive law involved is US criminal law, pure and simple." More from the director-dude:"1) In order for a State to try a criminal for a crime, it must have jurisdiction over the person and over the crime.2) Jurisdiction over the person is typically had by seizing the person. That being said, jurisdictional immunities (like Head of State) may apply. In this case, we argued against the immunity on some basis.3) Jurisdiction over the crime must come from domestic statute that gives notice to criminals that their acts are subject to US law. In order to be consistent with international law, such jurisdiction must be consistent with one of the recognized bases of national jurisdiction, to wit: i) territorial (the act occurred in your territory ii) protective (the act harmed one of your nationals) iii) nationality (the perpetrator is a citizen of your State) iv) universal (the crime is one of very very few over which intl law obviates a better link with the State -- eg genocide) The US also recognizes (though it is controversial) so-called "effects" (or "objective territorial") jurisdiction -- an act which, though occurring outside the US, has effects within the US." There's some educated and expert detail, if anyone is interested. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted February 16, 2008 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2008 finally17, That was good information and thanks for digging into it - if I understand it correctly, it seems to coincide with my contentions that acts by government actors outside the U.S. are still subject to Consitutional law. If Noriega can be brought to trial on domestic charges, then his government captors are held to the rules of U.S. law when acting in Panama. His captors could not have held him indefinately and tortured him into confessing all his accomplices and their whereabouts, for example, because this violates his rights as an accused in the U.S. legal system. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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