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Who's To Blame


mikegill

  

23 members have voted

  1. 1. Who's To Blame

    • 100% North
      3
    • Mostly North
      7
    • 50/50
      2
    • Mostly South
      0
    • 100% South
      0
    • Nobody really to blame
      11


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I might be missing something, but I don't understand what ELC has to do with doubling or not doubling on the North hand.

 

I would have overcalled 1, which on the actual hand allows South to bid 4, possibly we could bid a slam now.

 

On the actual auction, North must have a reason to bid 5/5 - i.e. he does not have a 4414 13 count. It is reasonable IMO for South to bid a 6th heart now.

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If I had to blame anyone, it is North. North has much better than a typical takeout double of 1 and his partner jumped to game in hearts over 3. South cannot bid a slam on his own. And a cue bid by South over 3 is out of the question, as it would ask North to pick a major.

 

This is truly a very tough problem. North is the only one who has a chance to get it right, so I assign most of the blame to North. But I suspect that I would have duplicated his actions.

 

I don't see why South should hang his partner for competing to the five level over 5. The 5 over 5 bid does not give South enough reason to bid again.

 

I agree that ELC has nothing to do with this problem. North has a clear double over 1. :)

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I don't think I would have reached this slam after starting with double. There is a chance after a 1 overcall since south can splinter or bid 4 over 3 or something, but I'd be lying if I said I was confident I'd bid it then either.
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Bidding seems fine up until the 5 bid. If you want to get to slam on this hand (imo) you have to pass/pull to 5 to show some sort of slam interest. Not sure if that is the correct bid, but starting with a double that seems the only route there.
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Hi,

 

the opponents.

 

I think South can make a stronger move with 4D,

but making a cue bid, when the trump suit is not

clear is always dangerous.

And if 4D leads to a catastroph, I am the first to

blame South for making such a problematic bid.

 

South would bid 4H without the Ace of hearts, and

thats why North cant bid more, but 5H is certainly

no invitation to bid on.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I consider 4H to be an underbid.

 

I would jump to 4H with

 

Qxx

KTxx

x

Axxxx

 

So the south hand is 1 trick + 1 control stronger. Its clearly deserve a 4D bid (with a correction to 5C over 4S to show H+C slammish. Of course if you play that 4D 100% guarranted both maj you are stucked.

 

I would have overcall 1H but i have no problem with X. But after the X an a proper 4D its hard to miss the slam

 

Ps does any1 play 4C here as forcing ? Im wondering because the 4C as natural non-forcing rarely come-up and isnt super useful.

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btw, I think your X is 100 % correct, I would never risk playing 1H when cold for 4S etc. This hand is way too good to overcall 1H and you have perfect Xing shape, what is the problem?
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btw, I think your X is 100 % correct, I would never risk playing 1H when cold for 4S etc. This hand is way too good to overcall 1H and you have perfect Xing shape, what is the problem?

I prefer to overcall. But it's borderline. Don't think there's a problem with either action - it's just down to personal preferences.

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If I had to blame anyone, it would be North for not initiating a pass-and-pull sequence, since this is clearly a forcing pass auction. I would be playing in 5 hearts, though, and be kicking myself and writing it up as a problem for posters to tear me apart.
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If I had to blame anyone, it would be North for not initiating a pass-and-pull sequence, since this is clearly a forcing pass auction. I would be playing in 5 hearts, though, and be kicking myself and writing it up as a problem for posters to tear me apart.

This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

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btw, I think your X is 100 % correct, I would never risk playing 1H when cold for 4S etc. This hand is way too good to overcall 1H and you have perfect Xing shape, what is the problem?

I prefer to overcall. But it's borderline. Don't think there's a problem with either action - it's just down to personal preferences.

I just don't get it, do you think you are overbidding if you double first and later bid 2H? It seems to me like you have perfect shape and values for Xing, you are not concerned with any followups ever, and can much more easily get to non-heart games by Xing immediately, you can get to slam easier by Xing, and you even rate to stop lower if you start with a double than 1H because if you overcall 1H and the opps bid you are going to keep bidding forever. I mean imagine it goes 1D 1H 3D p p X p 3H. Would you pass? Maybe, but you could be missing a game since you would probably be reopening X on AQxx AKxxx x Qxx as well. If you bid you could just be ridiculously high. By overcalling 1H you made it tough to STOP low.

 

And the risk of playing in 1H opposite Qxxxx x Qxxx xxx or something is very real as well. I'm all for overcalling heavy on a hand like Qx KQJxx KQxx AJ where you have a lot of HCP but Xing creates a lot of problems for you, but here I don't see why doubling will create any problems at all.

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If I had to blame anyone, it would be North for not initiating a pass-and-pull sequence, since this is clearly a forcing pass auction.  I would be playing in 5 hearts, though, and be kicking myself and writing it up as a problem for posters to tear me apart.

This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

agree totally

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If I had to blame anyone, it would be North for not initiating a pass-and-pull sequence, since this is clearly a forcing pass auction.  I would be playing in 5 hearts, though, and be kicking myself and writing it up as a problem for posters to tear me apart.

This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

agree totally

Since I'm disagreeing with two people who both have a better understanding of bridge, then I am willing to concede that I am probably wrong. Here's why I believe this is a forcing pass auction, however:

 

1) although it was not stated in the problem, 1-(X) -3 is a preemptive raise for most people, done on very light values typically NV

 

2) Given that the opponents are preempting, my partner is NOT preempting by bidding 4. He is bidding to make.

 

3) If my partner is bidding game to make, then we are committed to either doubling them or bidding on when they bid over our (making) game.

 

I am, of course, perfectly willing to listen to where I've got this wrong should anyone be so kind as to point it out.

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This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

agree totally

So one simply forcing pass rule: "We freely bid game and they defend" does not apply here because....?

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This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

agree totally

So one simply forcing pass rule: "We freely bid game and they defend" does not apply here because....?

... we bid game on distribution (trump length in particular), not brute force.

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3) If my partner is bidding game to make, then we are committed to either doubling them or bidding on when they bid over our (making) game.

Hi, I was with you until this point.

 

4H is a bid that can be made on something like xx KQJxx xxx Kxx or J QJxxx xx Kxxxx, I would bid it hoping to make (but aware that I might not make) because I have 5 good hearts and 3 diamonds, and I would expect partner to pass 3H on a lot of hands that make game cold. However, these hands don't have enough tricks on defense to X, and they are not hands I would want partner Xing 5D with if he had a random takeout X that didn't want to encourage a 5H bid. They are also not hands I would be willing to committ to bidding 5H with myself. It could still be their hand once they bid 5D, even though I was bidding 4H based on the thinking that I'd have a good shot to make it.

 

Basically both sides may have distribution, and on hands like this where you don't know who ownership of the deal belongs to you shouldn't be forced to double them if you don't want to bid on to the 5 level.

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This is clearly NOT a forcing pass auction, as far as I'm concerned.

agree totally

So one simply forcing pass rule: "We freely bid game and they defend" does not apply here because....?

I think this is a horrible rule. That would make an auction like 1S p 2S 3H 4S 5H a forcing pass auction as well. Bridge is a competitive game and when both sides have a big fit you don't want to play a double or bid game, sometimes you have bid your hands aggressively because of your shape and done your job in pushing them to the 5 level.

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Why was there no alert on 3?

 

We hold 25 HCP, opener should have 12+ HCP, so the 3 bid has 3- HCP. It should have been alerted.

 

What would north bid holding an 12 HCP 4414 shape?

 

If this would be a dbl too, then north should bid 6 because he has 5 HCP more than minimum and an extra trump.

 

Maybe my bidding methods need improvement, but my partner volunteered to jump to game. Why should he preempt over opps preemptive 3? We are NV and the scoring method is MP. So I do expect some defense from him for that 4 bid. I think most pickup partnerships would see that as a forcing pass situation.

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Why was there no alert on 3?

 

We hold 25 HCP, opener should have 12+ HCP, so the 3 bid has 3- HCP. It should have been alerted.

I don't understand this comment. what exactly do you think 3 promises, if unalerted? a limit raise?

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Why was there no alert on 3?

 

We hold 25 HCP, opener should have 12+ HCP, so the 3 bid has 3- HCP. It should have been alerted.

Hi, I don't know what country you're from but in the ACBL at least preemptive jumps are not alertable after an overcall or X.

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