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North is dealer

East is holding:

 3

 10 8 5

 A K Q 5 3

 K Q J 8

 

West has:

 9 7 4

 A J 7 6

 J 9 7 6

 A 3

 

Bidding goes (North opens)

1 - 1 - P - 1

.P - 2 - P - 3

East now bids 4, all pass.

 

Do you agree with the bidding?

 

How would you bid the hands?

 

;) rla

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In the B/I context, I recommend that advancer choose between the conservative single raise, than almost certainly leads to a missed game, or the aggressive cue-bid that probably leads to game, hopefully 5 rather than 3N ;) Altho, the opps better lead their spades to beat 3N.

 

Advanced/expert players may have an edge here, in that they can (if they choose) have an intermediate bid: the transfer advance: where 2 is not a generic force but a constructive diamond raise, which looks to be about right.

 

As you can probably tell, I do not advocate nor approve of the 1 advance.

 

I stand to be corrected, and there may be regional variations here, but my view of standard treatment is that 1 promises a 5+ suit.

 

While that approach will sometimes miss a 4-4 partial, and, once in a while when both hands are maximum for conservative action, the occasional game, I think that this style is a long-term winner.

 

When advancer chooses a single raise, overcaller can bid a 4 card major with game ambitions and safety in 3.

 

When advancer chooses a cue bid, overcaller can bid a 4 card major with a hand worth the equivalent of a K or more than a rock-bottom overcall.

 

In this manner, most hands that combine for game on a 4-4 fit can be reached. In the interim, by preserving the new major by advancer as 5+, it makes overcaller's raise decisions far easier. He will better evaluate his degree of fit.

 

I have seen several B/I players, in the local club, advance a 1-level overcal lon weak 4 card suits, sometimes profitably, but the fact that it works sometimes is not a reason for doing it. OTOH, I would be interested in hearing from other experts as to their views/experience on the topic.

 

BTW, one point I should have mentioned: if you play that the major may be 4 cards, then you had better play it as forcing for 1 round. Otherwise, playing a 4-2 fit or even a 4-1 is going to become a frequent, if disappointing, experience.

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I have a feeling this has been discussed before. That some prefer

1-1-P-1 is 4+ and

1/-1-P-1 should be 5+.

 

I think W bid just fine. Not so sure about the E 4-bid.

However, as Mike said, I also like the 2 constructive diamond raise. Advancer got room to search for a potential 3NT, but I he knows you probably belong in a diamond contract.

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#1 1H is ok, as along as you play it as forcing

Be aware, that playing 1H as forcing is not standard,

... I am not even sure, that it would be played by the majority

If you play 1H as forcing, bidding 1H on a 4 carder is ok as well,

but again be aware, this is certainly not mainstream, ... and the

raise on 3 cards shows this

 

#2 (1C) - 1D - (Pass) - 2C (1)

(Pass) - 3NT (2) - (Pass) - Pass

 

(1) inv.+ better raise

(2) enough for game, clupp stopper,

no 4 card heart / spade suit

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Advances after overcall are often undiscussed. The simpler way i suggest is same level forcing 2/1 not forcing.

 

(1C)---1H---(P)------???

 

1S is forcing but not 2D

 

 

 

(1C)---1D---(P)----1H (could be 4)

(P)---???

 

2H should be minimum overcall

2C should show a opening hands

 

(1C)---1D---(P)----1H (tend to show 5 cards)

(P)---2H---(P)-----3D (INV not forcing tend to show only 4H)

(P)---3Nt

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#1 1H is ok, as along as you play it as  forcing

    Be aware, that playing 1H as forcing is not standard,

Huh. In my neck of the woods, not only does everybody I know play a 1 level response to an overcall as a 1 round force, but if the auction went:

 

1 1 -P- 1

-P- -P-

 

the next call would probably be for the director.

 

I don't see any real advantage to playing 1 there as nonforcing. Partner should have some points for the 1 bid, and surely somebody belongs at the 2 level.

 

On the actual hand, I don't see what the big deal is, especially if it's match points. If South had AJ96 instead of AJ76 you'd have good odds for a top. 2 instead of 1 gets you to the right place this time, might get you to 2 instead of 2 next time.

 

I don't think there's anything wrong with bidding 2 here, mind you, but if you play 1 as frequently a 4 card suit there I don't think the auction was wrong.

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