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Sub-moysian


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So hoping to understand it correct now: The false preference here is a kind of waiting bid, asking opener to show a little bid more about his hand, instead of describing more of the own hand. (It is not completly undescreptive, but could include many more possible hands then I had thought about)

Exactly B)

 

There is a style in which responder can preference to opener's first suit on even a singleton, making the bid essentially 100% artificial, but that is not standard. Really it should show at least a doubleton. So your 5215 example is free to bid 4 with this very good club support and lack of suitability for 3NT. The 5224 hand would do well to bid 3 instead of 4 because the club support is bad, and it doesn't rule out 3NT.

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I think a normal auction has the bidding starting 1 - 1 - 2 - 2 - 3. North might take another call, but thats dubious.

I disagree, 3 should show 6-4. South's third bid is a matter of style, either 2 or 2.

Indeed. I would expect 2 and 2 to be 1354 and 3154.

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Why is 3 horrible?

I thought the requirements are 19-21 total points (HCP + Length) and isn't taht what South has?

Admitedly the Jx in hearts may be worthless

 

 

What am I misunderstanding?

<nothing>

Nothing.

 

You may or may not bid 3C, as long

as you know, that 3C is game forcing,

the alternative would be 2C.

3C is an overbid, 2C is an underbid,

choose and be prepared to pay the price.

 

Since you hold 3 jacks, the HCP method

to evaluate the strength of the hand,

overstates the power of the hand to a

certain degree.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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As a totally unrelated question, I held AQx A AQTxxx Axx today.

 

1-1

?

3C. Nobody who plays regular 2/1 or SAYC systems can play 3C shows 4 without having some kind of artificial agreement in place (like 2N forcing or art 2S or w/e).

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