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Bidding.


Raivis

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Let's reconstruct opener hand!

Opener NOT open with GF!

1) one suiter

2) two suiter +

3) two suiter +

4) two suiter +

5) three suiter without

6) three suiter without

7) three suiter without

 

#2 Bidding start with 1-1-3... (Out)

#4 Bidding start with 1-1-1... (Out)

#5 Bidding start with 1-1-1... (Out)

#6 Bidding start with 1-1-1... (Out)

 

If anyone say's with two suiter + and near GF values bid 1 and 2 after partner 1, i'm opposite - much better bidding sequence is 1-1-1 and later forcing with .

Hard to see hand with NO GF and  + after partner simple 1 respond tray to GF!

 

Well.

1) one suiter

3) two suiter +

7) three suiter without

 

#3 and #7 - hearts game.

#1 - diamonds/NT/hearts game.

 

2 - artifical GF, cuebid in spades.

Raivis, it is good to see a relatively new member posting hands, and I don't want to discourage you, but the problem with this particular thread is that you posted an auction in the A/E thread and solicited opinions. You got a number, including from some pretty good players... real experts... and the consensus has been that the sequence 1  1  2 shows 4+ spades and 5+ diamonds and a hand good enough to force to game opposite a minimum 1 response.

 

Note that 'forcing to game' is not the same as being able to always make game. Sometimes we make a gf bid and end up failing in our game... that's the nature of bridge. A typical hand for 2 would look like AKJx x AKQxx Kxx. Opposite a minimum response such as xxx KJxxx xx Jxx, we may well fail in game... big deal.

 

Few experts (none that I personally know) play that 1  1  1 is forcing. There are a number of powerful arguments as to why 1 should be passable: we have had this discussion before on this forum, altho I can't give you a link, I am afraid.

 

You are free to play whatever (legal) method you choose, and playing 1 as forcing is legal. You will find that few, if any, good partners will understand what you are doing unless you specifically discuss it with them ahead of time.

 

In the meantime, when you post an auction using your own, non-standard methods, and ask for opinions, I suggest that you disclose your non-standard agreements, else the answers won't mean much to you because we will all assume that you use standard methods :)

 

Now, especially if you live in an area where there are not many good players, or if you have only been playing for a short time, you may not realize that your methods are non-standard. If that is the case, you have come to a very good resource. This forum has a wide range of players of varying levels of experience and idiosyncratic methods, but there are quite a few who truly do know a lot about standard treatments. Listing everyone would be impossible, and I'd offend good players whose names should be included but whose names I left out, so I won't name names, but, if you read here a lot, you'll soon learn whose opinions seem to make the most sense :D

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OK.

Three examples:

 

On all deals bidding starts with 1-1...

 

You hold:

1) Axxx/x/AKxxx/Kxx

2) AKxx/A/Axxxx/KQx

3) A/AKQx/Axxxx/xxx

 

Your next bid?

 

#1 99% partscore if responder have minimum.

#2 Partscore/game (vital responder group and honor location)

#3 99% game

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OK.

Three examples:

 

On all deals bidding starts with 1-1...

 

You hold:

1) Axxx/x/AKxxx/Kxx

2) AKxx/A/Axxxx/KQx

3) A/AKQx/Axxxx/xxx

 

Your next bid?

 

#1 99% partscore if responder have minimum.

#2 Partscore/game (vital responder group and honor location)

#3 99% game

On the first hand, you have to bid 1. There are also many weaker hands (this hand is a prime 14 count) where you would bid 1.

 

Hand two is worth a game force. You have 20 hcp and partner should have at least 5 or so. Certainly you can construct hands where you have 26 hcp and game does not make, but aiming for these is a small target. If you rebid 1 and it's forcing, what's your plan after partner's 1NT or 2 rebid anyway? Bidding 2NT now is a huge underbid and will miss many making games. Anyways, this is the standard hand for bidding 2. What's the advantage to bidding 2 right away? First off, when you hold hand 1, which is much more frequent, partner is now allowed to pass 1 without being afraid of hand 2. This lets you play a better partial in many instances. Second, the followup bidding is sometimes cleaner. If 1 is forcing, partner will often bid 1NT or 2 on unsuitable hands simply because he has to bid something. Now opener has to force game, and may well need to make some unilateral call (like say 3NT) because most other bids would not be forcing.

 

Hand three may be worth a game force too, but again note that there are many hands for partner where game will not make. For example KQx Jxxxx Qx Jxx is a pretty nice hand (9 hcp) but if opponents cash their three clubs right away you will never avoid the late diamond loser. Certainly there is some advantage to using 3 as a game-forcing raise here (the standard meaning is splinter) in case partner wants to cuebid, but bidding 4 is also okay. In either case it is nice to unambiguously show your support right away so partner can evaluate correctly.

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Happy end!

 

Opener hand - Ax/AKQx/Axxxx/Ax

Responder hand - Kx/Txxxx/x/KJTxx

 

My explanation of bidind:

1 - natural

1- natural

2* - GF (probably with hearts or diamonds)

3* - cuebid (maybe shortness)

3* - relay if served diamond game, cuebid if served hearts game

3* - cuebid (maybe shortness)

4* - cuebid (maybe shortness)

4* - that's all i i'm have.

7 - that's all i i'm need, thx partner.

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