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T-Walsh Problem


  

23 members have voted

  1. 1. T-Walsh Problem

    • 2C. Least of evils
      16
    • 1N. Shows my minimum (balanced) hand
      6
    • Abstain - this hand type is too much of a headache and you should use 1S and 1N differently
      1


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Currently we are playing 1 (Balanced or clubs) - 1 as either diamonds or a balanced 5-9 count without a 4 card major. A direct 1N shows a balanced 10-12.

 

This usually works great and there are some nice system wins you get, but say you pick up something like:

 

AQxx

x

KQx

Qxxxx

 

What do you rebid after 1 - 1?

 

A rebid of 1N shows a balanced 11+ - 13.

Rebids of 2 / 2 are natural reverses.

 

Any suggestions?

 

I hate to say this, but if you don't play T-Walsh, or don't appreciate this 'problem', please just lurk. ;)

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I have never played this 1 response, but I would bid 1N here. At least, we aren't missing a 5-4 diamond fit.

 

Btw, I wouldn't explain 1N as balanced 11-13. There are many more semi-balanced hands where you have to rebid 1N, some of them quite a bit stronger (I don't think you want to reverse with 15 opposite a likely 5-9), and you should make it an agreement that these are allowed.

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1N I guess.

 

Not sure about the methods - 1C:1NT works fine when played as very wide ranging - 11-13 bal passes, 17-19 bal bids on, 14-16 unbal can rebid 2, even on five cards, safe in the knowledge that responder will have 3+clubs. After 1C:1N, 2C, 2D/H/S/N would be fragments showing the upper end of the 1NT range.

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It's never been all that clear to me what the big advantage is supposed to be to playing 1-1NT as a stronger and narrower range than 1-1NT, despite the fact that even the maximum 1-1NT hand is too light for game opposite a maximum weak notrump. Here it seems like you lose the ability to show a diamond suit, which is especially bad since most people playing T-Walsh seem to open 1 as much as possible, including for example (32)44 hands. It's nice to be able to find your nine-card diamond fits sometimes, you know? Here if 1 showed "5+ diamonds or extras" and 1NT was something like 6-11, you could happily rebid 2 (not showing extras, just a raise of partner's likely 5-card diamond suit) over 1 or rebid 2 over 1NT (the 1NT bid is either 3343 or else promises 4, so you will always have a fit).

 

Anyways, given the methods I think 2 is least of evils. Partner will usually have either 3 or 6 (hopefully partner will rebid 2 with six diamonds and short clubs here).

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The opponents have at least a nine card fit. I would rebid 2, happy to play there, if we can, opposite 5-9 without 6s. If the opponents compete with 2, I next bid 2NT to get s into play.
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I think it's normal in these methods to bid 2 on these hands, on the understanding partner now bids diamonds (2 to play, 3 inv., 2M forcing with diamonds) if he has them. Either he does that, or he passes in which case he is balanced. Certainly 2 rates to be better than 1NT when partner is balanced with no four card major, and when he has diamonds it usually wouldn't matter, although 2 is also better so partner can pass if 6-3 in the minors.
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2 - the system thinks for you, isn't He?

At worst (concerning the fit), partner is 3=3=5=2 and partner passes 2

Or it can be 3=3=6=1 and he will bid 2.

Anyway, partner will know that opener is unbalanced and this might be critical in case responder is strong with (btw it can also be balanced any strength in my version).

Sylvain

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