Jxxxx=xx=xxx=xxx

[kgr]

IMPS; E/-

(1C)-1D-(DBL)-Pass

(2C)-DBL-(RDBL)-??

Ideally your partner has 4=4=5=0, but probably he has 3-4=5=1 (otherwise he would have started with a DBL) and 12-15 HCP. RHO also did promise the majors and not too bad hand.

Do you prefer 2D or 2S now?

PS: Not sure if I had Jxxxx=xx=xxx=xxx or Jxxxx=xxx=xxx=xx

[mike777]

2s. Partner asked me to bid my longest suit, so I do.

[skjaeran]

Partner showed a strong 1♦ overcall. He's normally got a 16+ hand with 6c♦. Bidding 2♦ is clearcut. I'll not introduce my empty ♠-suit and risk playing in a hopeless 5-2 fit with RHO known to hold four trumps.

[easy]

Sounds to me like pard has 3361 distribution with good overcall. I bid spades. I'm willing to bet the different interpretations of this sequence will be based on which continent you play bridge.

[skjaeran]

Sounds to me like pard has 3361 distribution with good overcall. I bid spades. I'm willing to bet the different interpretations of this sequence will be based on which continent you play bridge.

 

I doubt that. Most strong players bid like this with say 2362 and a strong hand too.

 

2s. Partner asked me to bid my longest suit, so I do.

Most people double with 4450/3451/4351, so that can't be true.

[jvage]

I don't think the methods you describe are mainstream, Harald, or perhaps I'm just not a good player B)

 

While I've seen some contributors in "The Bridge World" advocate unlimited overcalls, here in Norway (where both of us play) I am pretty sure even most strong players would double and rebid diamonds with about 17+ and 6+ diamonds. So it would not be standard to use the double in the given sequence to show 16+ and 6+ diamonds as you stated above. With 2362 and about 14-17 it would be normal to bid 1♦ and then rebid 2♦.

 

I would definitely take partners double as takeout with some extras, 3451, 4351, 3352 or 3361 are partners most likely distributions. The reasons for bidding diamonds first instead of doubling include:

1. With around 16HP you got no good rebid if partner bids the 3 card suit, but game may still be possible. You are much better placed if partner bids a major freely over 1♦, and you will often get a chance to show your hand (like in the example).

2. We may play much better in diamonds than in a bad 4-3 fit in a major.

3. Lead-direction.

 

All this said the choice between 2♦ and 2♠ is not clear. Assuming RHO's first double showed both majors spades are known to break badly. I would probably bid 2♦ at IMP's and 2♠ at MP.

[mcphee]

I fail to appreciate why the hand would want to make a t/o dble to risk playing in some silly 5-2 fit while his partner has been passing, it really makes little sense to me. Bid S what are we afraid of.

 

I happen to be from the school of no fear strong overcalls. If I happen to dble and bid my own suit I have an extremely good hand. Here you o/c in D and later compete further with dble simply shows a hand that has indicated a safe spot to play in D and is offering partner support in other suit while tending to show extra values.

[Gerben42]

2♠ clear cut, partner promised 3♠ for this auction. If he didn't want to play in ♠, partner shouldn't have doubled...

[kgr]

Partner had 3=4=5=1 and 16 HCP.

I did bid 2♦ for 2 reasons:

- DBL's of RHO indicated bad breaks in majors to me (actually RHO had only 3 card ♠)

- I thought 2♠ was more encouraging then 2♦ (..is it?)

Partner raised to 3♦ and went -1. I didn't follow the played but was told later that he should make.

Thanks for the replys!

Koen