Play problem

[CSGibson]

[hv=d=n&v=n&n=saj74hajt8d54ca74&s=sqt965h65d32cqj92]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

The bidding has gone:

 

1♣ - (1♦) - 1♠ - (3♦*) - 3♠ - (4♦) - P - P - 4♠ All pass

 

*weak, preemptive

 

Trick one: 6♦ - 4♦ - J♦ - 3♦

Trick Two: Q♦ - 2♦ - 8♦ - 5♦

Trick Three: 2♠ - T♠ - K♠ - A♠

 

At trick 4, you pull trump, splitting 2-2 ending in hand, and then finnesse the jack of hearts, losing to the king. A diamond is returned. How do you play the remainder of the hand?

[Finch]

Anyone sane must know they are conceding ruff-discard here. The spade switch at trick 3 was already very helpful (how exactly were we planning on getting to hand to take the finesse?), so RHO must have the AKQJ of diamonds or surely LHO would have won a diamond to play a club through. But that's not consistent with the diamond play either, it would mean LHO lead the 6 from 10986. So now I think that LHO had K986 or K1086 and somehow forgot to take the second diamond (RHO should have played a lower diamond at trick 2 as well, of course, to put partner in).

 

Now RHO would rather concede R&D than plan a club or a heart.

 

So there seem to be two possible layouts:

i) the lie is so favourable that we were making anyway (LHO started with H9x of hearts and the CK, or LHO has the CK and the C10 is doubleton onside), or

ii) RHO thinks he is better to concede R&D than play a heart.

 

Neither of these looks very likely. The former gives LHO Kx Q9x K10xx Kxxx which is not a pre-emptive raise (far from it)

 

Seems more likely that RHO has all the heart and club honours, and is looking at xx KQx(x) AQJxx Kx(x). Make the 4D bid a bit strange (and the lack of a double of 4S), but the rest adds up a bit better.

 

The thing is, even if RHO has this hand, he knows we have 6 rounded suit cards and even giving us 4 heart tricks will not give the contract. So he's misdefended whatever. So I should assume he is trying to give me a chance to go wrong and I just ruff in hand ditching a club and take the club finesse.

 

p.s. what's with North's 4S bid? What's wrong with double?

[foo]

North deals and opens 1C

 

♠AJ74 ♥AJT8 ♦54 ♣A74

+

♠QT965 ♥65 ♦32 ♣QJ92

 

1C-(1D)-1S-(3D!);3S-(4D)-pa-pa;4S

 

I like Frances' play analysis. I think I feel even more strongly than she does that the bidding here is ludicrous.

 

1= By traditional standards, S as Responder does not have the strength to bid 1S after 1C-(1D).

S's soft values are badly placed given E's (1D) overcall. Every possible hook rates to be wrong. S also has the "death holding" of 2 small ♦'s.

Particularly at IMPs, S's hand looks like pass or a Neg X followed by a ♠ bid here. But whatever S does, it should limit their hand and show how weak they are.

 

2= Given that Responder did bid 1S, traditional standards say Opener is also guilty of overbidding when they bid 3S over (3D!).

Yes, N has 4 card ♠ support, but it's in an 8 loser hand with low ODR, badly placed values, and (once again) the "death holding" of 2 small ♦'s.

The 3S call by N here puts NS =at IMPs= in an at best 50% 3S contract with only 19 HCP when ~23 HCP is usually needed for a 3 level suit contract to be odds on.

 

3= The (4D) should be X'd on the actual bidding, but should not be X'd on the actual NS cards. Another risk caused by Responder overbidding their hand on the 1st round.

 

4= 4S is simply not Bridge. EW should X this so fast that the 4S bidder's head should spin.

 

Unless S can create a play plan that involves repeatedly endplaying E into giving up tricks, NS rates to do very badly in 4SX and will bring back a score to teammates that will be hard (as in "impossible") to justify.

If NS do get lucky and make this, they should realize they were just that- lucky, not good, to make 4S.

 

The defense plan should be for EW to put W in whenever they can and then have W put ♠'s, ♥'s, or ♣'s thru N and into S.

 

Something along the lines of (depending on the actual EW hands here)

1= W leads a ♣, E wins or gets a trick set up

(if ♣'s split 1:5 and E was allowed to win, E can now give W a ruff)

2= if E is allowed to win and the unlikely ♣ ruff is not possible,

E leads a small ♦ for W to win.

3= W now returns a ♥

Etc.

 

If the (1D) bidder has their bid, 4SX should be painful for Declarer if defended correctly.

[Rebound]

Perhaps I'm just stunned. If so, please forgive me. But I really don't see what other options exist other than to ruff in the South hand, pitch a club from North, and pray W holds the ♣ K.

[nige1]

Dealer: North Vul: None Scoring: IMP

♠ AJ74 ♥ AJT8 ♦ 54 ♣ A74 ♠ QT965 ♥ 65 ♦ 32 ♣ QJ92

The bidding has gone: 

1♣ - (1♦) - 1♠ - (3♦*) - 3♠ - (4♦) - P - P - 4♠ All pass

*weak, preemptive

Trick one: 6♦ - 4♦ - J♦ - 3♦

Trick Two:  Q♦ - 2♦ - 8♦ - 5♦

Trick Three: 2♠ - T♠ - K♠ - A♠

At trick 4, you pull trump, splitting 2-2 ending in hand, and then finesse the jack of hearts, losing to the king.  A diamond is returned.  How do you play the remainder of the hand?

As South, I would reply 1♠ :) As North I would compete with 3♠ :) Perhaps 4♠ is a bit brave :) I don't dispute Frances Hinden's analysis. As the defence has gone, however, an ordinary player like me would consider ruffing the third ♦ in dummy. Then cashing ♣A and running trumps. Finally, he could finesse ♥ and hope that the ♥9 now drops. Perhaps RHO started with

♠ x x ♥ K 9 x x ♦ A K Q J T ♣ K x :)

 

At my level, few bid perfectly, defend perfectly, or (as I've just demonstrated) play perfectly :)