How much to bid?

[cnszsun]

[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sxxxhj10xxdaqxxcxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP

1♣-(1♥)-ps-(ps)

2♦-(ps)-?[/hv]

You passed in first round, then partner reversed in balancing seat, what kind hand did he get, and your action?

At table, i thought his most likely shape was 5♦s+6♣s, then we only needed him holding ♦K and ♣AK to make 5, so i jumped to 5♦. Was my thinking correct?

[whereagles]

2♥, followed by 3♦. Or a direct 3♦ if pard is an overbidder.

 

Pard cannot have 65. That would give opps like a dbl fit in the majors and they'd surely be bidding more.

[mike777]

As usual with tough bidding problems x or cuebid is often a fair option.

 

 

cuebid of 2h here. :rolleyes:

[Guest Jlall]

I would just bid 4D.

[helene_t]

My immediate reaction was 3♦ but thinking more about it, we almost certainly make 5♦ if p has his bid.

 

4♦ it is. P is probably void in hearts (a reverse shows a hand that would not like to defend 1♥X I think) so it's no problem to bypass 3N.

 

2♥ would show a trap pass I think.

[kgr]

I would just bid 4D.

I'm always happy if I would have chosen the same bid as you....so I'm worried about my choice now:

Here I would bid 2H followed by 3NT. Don't you think that 3NT is still a possible contract?

[mr1303]

Why didn't I bid 1NT the first time round? That way I'd get my hand off my chest.

 

I'm going to try 3D here. 3NT may be a good contract.

[dicklont]

It's a pity I didn't bid 1NT on the first round.

What does partner have? He didn't reopen with a double, and he must be quite strong for his reverse. I shouldn't hang him for it though.

 

I will show my support with 3♦, if he's 15-17 it's probably ok,

since 3NT will then only make with Ax, xx, KJxx, AKQxx.

If he's stronger i guess he'll cue 3♥ and we end in 3NT.

With more distribution (5-6 is suggested) we will find 5/6♦ (and i hope it will be the right one then :) ).

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

5-4 is possible, and more likely than 6-5,

if he has 6-5, he will make another move

if I show some live.

 

I guess I would go with 3D, if I would bid

stronger, partner may give me a trap pass.

For that matter, why did I not bid 1NT?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: An interesting point to discuss with partner

is, if 2D is forcing or not, and if it is forcing, if

2NT would be what ever you call it (e.g. Lebensohl).

[Guest Jlall]

I would just bid 4D.

I'm always happy if I would have chosen the same bid as you....so I'm worried about my choice now:

Here I would bid 2H followed by 3NT. Don't you think that 3NT is still a possible contract?

2H is certainly reasonable, but I don't think you should be angling for 3N. Partner didn't reopen with a X so that means either short spades OR a shapely hand (since if he was say 3145 he would X, etc). I don't think 2245 is possible in this auction since partner could have opened 1N, rebid 1N, passed with a minimum hand, or Xed with 2245 18-19 no stopper. It seems like you are facing a good 4-6 or longer from partner and you really have no desire to play 3N opposite that. Add to that that when you bid 2H followed by 3N he will think you are loaded in hearts and had a trap pass, and that he already has shown shape, he is not going to pull it with a normal 4-6 hand.

[Codo]

3 ♦ is enough for me, I would expect pd to reopen with hands which are a tad weaker then a normal reverse.

 

I had bid 1 NT the first round too, but don´t mind passing, this is minimum with a weak stopper, so enough reason to downgrade.

[mike777]

3d seems too little here for me. Partner has a real good hand.

More than:

 

AJ..xx.......AKxx........Axxxx

[skjaeran]

3d seems too little here for me. Partner has a real good hand.

More than:

 

AJ..xx.......AKxx........Axxxx

I agree with the first part, but not the 2nd.

That hand is an obvious balancing double and so is stronger hands of this type. You're really happy if partner converts holding hands like this.

 

Btw, I'd always bid 1NT on the previous round with this hand,

[pclayton]

Pard is either a 5-6, but could also be a very strong hand with the shape inappropriate for a TOx - something like a 1=3=4=5 20 count.

 

In either case, I'm not interested in 3N.

 

4♦ is a very intelligent call. We might even have a slam opposite: A, x, KJxxx, AKxxxx.

[Codo]

Okay for all the guys who dislike 3 Diamond:

 

1. What is the worst hand you bid 3 Diamond with?

 

2. What is the worst hand you expect pd to have for his reverse?

[mike777]

Okay for all the guys who dislike 3 Diamond:

 

1. What is the worst hand you bid 3 Diamond with?

 

2. What is the worst hand you expect pd to have for his reverse?

IF partner can bid 2d on a 3.5 two suited loser hand....we got to bid more than 3D. :)

 

in another words if we got 2 or 2.5 winners or more we got to bid more than 3d....with less 3d is fine.

[jdonn]

Okay for all the guys who dislike 3 Diamond:

 

1. What is the worst hand you bid 3 Diamond with?

 

2. What is the worst hand you expect pd to have for his reverse?

I would bid 3♦ with the diamond ace less.

[P_Marlowe]

Okay for all the guys who dislike 3 Diamond:

 

1. What is the worst hand you bid 3 Diamond with?

 

2. What is the worst hand you expect pd to have for his reverse?

I would bid 3♦ with the diamond ace less.

And I would pass without the Ace.

 

The question a partnership has to answer is,

is 2D forcing / nonforcing, and if you have

answered this than you know, what you have

to bid.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[Guest Jlall]

I would def bid 3D with Kxxx of diamonds and xx clubs.

 

P_Marlowe I don't think jdonn (or anyone) thinks 2D is forcing, jdonn just realizes that a holding like Qxxx of diamonds and xx clubs is far more than minimum, and that the minors are the key on this auction. Partner would have no reason to think you have a hand as suitable as that when he bid 2D, and should be able to count on a raise with a hand that suitable.

[Codo]

So if Kxxx,xx in the minors and out is all you need, then pds best hand must be something like:

 

AK,xx,AQxx,AKxxx, because with less you will seldom make 5 Diamond?

Or do you really believe in xx,-,AQxxx,AKxxxx and the opps just bidding 1 Heart with 17 Majors suit cards and 23 HCPS between them?

 

I still cannot construct any hand where you need to bid 3 Diamonds with f.e. xxxx,xxx, Kxxx,xx.

 

So any advice is still welcome.

[P_Marlowe]

I would def bid 3D with Kxxx of diamonds and xx clubs.

 

P_Marlowe I don't think jdonn (or anyone) thinks 2D is forcing, jdonn just realizes that a holding like Qxxx of diamonds and xx clubs is far more than minimum, and that the minors are the key on this auction. Partner would have no reason to think you have a hand as suitable as that when he bid 2D, and should be able to count on a raise with a hand that suitable.

Kxxx in diamonds and xx in clubs are nice,

the only problem I have, that 5D is a long way

to go.

And what you expect partner to hold, and as

several past discussion revealed and you certainly

know, a reverse in North America is stronger than

the style I learned / and play.

 

But we may talk again in 1 or 2 years, and my

answer may have changed.

I am changing, ... but maybe so slow, that nobody

sees it.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[ArtK78]

In my opinion, 3♦ is enough on these cards.

 

Partner knows what he has, and he can bid again.

 

While the reverse is forcing (game forcing) opposite a partner who responded to the opening one bid, it is not forcing opposite a passed partner. If I had this hand without the ♦A, I would pass.

 

My partner and I had a nice hand the other day in an ACBL IMP pair game on BBO. I held:

 

Axxx

xxx

AQTx

xx

 

He opened 1♣ and I bid 1♦ (spades are not getting lost on this auction). His next bid was 3♠ - a splinter raise of diamonds. I bid 4♠ (for lack of a better call) and he bid 5♣. Without a heart control I bid 5♦ which ended the auction.

 

He held:

 

---

xx

KJxx

AKJxxxx

 

A very nice contract.

 

Partner may have a similar hand for his 1♣ opening and 2♦ reverse on the hand in this thread. If I bid 3♦ here, he is not passing. We will certainly get to game.

[mike777]

I would not reverse with Art's example hand.

[ArtK78]

I would not reverse with Art's example hand.

Why not?

 

Players reverse in made up suits all the time and then rebid their long suit to force. Why not reverse in a suit you actually have?

 

And if the objection is that the hand is not strong enough, then you are being a slave to high card points. This is a very strong hand - it produces a game in clubs opposite as little as xxxx xxxx xx Qxx , and good play for a game in diamonds opposite as little as xxx xxx Axxxx xx.

[mike777]

I would not reverse with Art's example hand.

Why not?

 

Players reverse in made up suits all the time and then rebid their long suit to force. Why not reverse in a suit you actually have?

 

And if the objection is that the hand is not strong enough, that is absurd.

Yes I think the hand is not strong enough in terms of HCP. Yes it is a 5 loser hand and has good playing strength. I try to avoid reversing based soley on playing strength.

 

So I would not reverse on the auction:

 

1c=(1h)=p=p

?

 

btw I rarely if ever reverse on made up suits. Hard to think of last time I did.