gnasher Posted November 11, 2007 Report Share Posted November 11, 2007 After 1S (2C) dbl (pass), what do you think is opener's normal rebid on a 5=3=3=2 minimum with roughly equal red suits? And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted November 11, 2007 Report Share Posted November 11, 2007 bid 2♦ with equal and the better with disparsity i think. 2♦ is the "more flexible" call. and u can obv. rebid spades with a nice suit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Halo Posted November 11, 2007 Report Share Posted November 11, 2007 Am I not allowed to rebid 2S with a minimum? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted November 11, 2007 Report Share Posted November 11, 2007 Rebid 2S with reasonable S, 2H if the fragment is ok, else 2D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 11, 2007 Report Share Posted November 11, 2007 It's pretty much suit quality between any of the three, but I would probably bid 2♠ the least. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 I'd almost always rebid 2♦ here as least of evils. Several reasons: (1) Partner is less likely to pass 2♦ than any other call, since it's a minor. Often partner will bid 2♠ with doubleton for the same reason partner bids 2♠ over 1♠-1nt(f)-2♦. (2) The 2♦ call gives partner room to bid hearts if he has a weak one-suiter, whereas a 2♠ call might get partner passing with 1-6-3-3 or the like. (3) Partner has a right to raise my rebid with a fit. With invitational values partner will often raise 2♥ to 3♥ (on a 4-3) or 2♠ to 3♠ (on a 5-2) whereas partner will often try 2NT over 2♦ if he has a stopper (even with a diamond fit). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 After 1S (2C) dbl (pass), what do you think is opener's normal rebid on a 5=3=3=2 minimum with roughly equal red suits? And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa? Negative doubles are great when you have a fit. They are lousy when you do not and have to grope. There seems to be no expert consensus when you need to grope. See BW magazine article Febuary 1991. 1d=(2c)=x=p? AQ7...J73.....AQ94.....852 2H=13 VOTES2S=9 VOTES2D=8 VOTES Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 If a heart 4-3 looks fine and a diamond 4-3 or spade 5-2 does not, I could easily bid 2♥ on 3. 2♠ only with a good suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted November 12, 2007 Report Share Posted November 12, 2007 Depends on your hand, 2D should be the most frequent then 2H then 2S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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