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5=3=3=2 after 1S (2C) dbl (pass)


gnasher

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I'd almost always rebid 2 here as least of evils. Several reasons:

 

(1) Partner is less likely to pass 2 than any other call, since it's a minor. Often partner will bid 2 with doubleton for the same reason partner bids 2 over 1-1nt(f)-2.

 

(2) The 2 call gives partner room to bid hearts if he has a weak one-suiter, whereas a 2 call might get partner passing with 1-6-3-3 or the like.

 

(3) Partner has a right to raise my rebid with a fit. With invitational values partner will often raise 2 to 3 (on a 4-3) or 2 to 3 (on a 5-2) whereas partner will often try 2NT over 2 if he has a stopper (even with a diamond fit).

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After 1S (2C) dbl (pass), what do you think is opener's normal rebid on a 5=3=3=2 minimum with roughly equal red suits?

 

And does it change if there is a big disparity between the red suits, eg KQx and Jxx or vice versa?

Negative doubles are great when you have a fit. They are lousy when you do not and have to grope.

 

There seems to be no expert consensus when you need to grope. See BW magazine article Febuary 1991.

 

1d=(2c)=x=p

?

 

AQ7...J73.....AQ94.....852

 

 

2H=13 VOTES

2S=9 VOTES

2D=8 VOTES

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