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what should be the meaning of 4[_CL]?


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My partner and I play 2/1GF, with some extra gadgets to show strong one suited hands.

In a pairs event he opened `, I bid 1NT with Axxx=98=Kxxx=QJx. Than he bid 4clubs.

I was at a loss what this could be, and eventually took it for a cue in a strong hand with hearts. I decided for 4, p4, end of bidding, made +2.

He had:

x=AKxxxx=void=AKxxxx

 

We had quite an argument:

My point was that 3 would be forcing as well, and that 4 has the disadvantage of putting me for a riddle, which I hate and which makes me more muddled than usual.

His point was that 4 must show a hand like this, as a good one suited hand with hearts should have been opened with a 2-opening as agreed. I admit i overlooked that point, as I was in total confusion.

 

Eventually we made up and are on 1st position halfway the competition, but I still wonder what are the merits of 4clubs above 3 clubs for a hand like his, a strong 2 suiter.

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Most of the posters thought it was a self-splinter. In actual fact, it is whatever you agree that it is. To me, it shows the hand that your partner had. If you are going to use up that much bidding space, you should be painting a picture. Self-splinters do that to some extent, but this is a much more graphic picture.

 

My problem with the self-splinter approach is that it makes it impossible to play in 3NT when 3NT could easily be the best possible final contract. With the 6-6 hand, one would never play in 3NT.

 

As for the utility of either approach, that is a matter of partnership agreement. Both are quite rare.

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Most of the posters thought it was a self-splinter. In actual fact, it is whatever you agree that it is. To me, it shows the hand that your partner had. If you are going to use up that much bidding space, you should be painting a picture. Self-splinters do that to some extent, but this is a much more graphic picture.

 

My problem with the self-splinter approach is that it makes it impossible to play in 3NT when 3NT could easily be the best possible final contract. With the 6-6 hand, one would never play in 3NT.

 

As for the utility of either approach, that is a matter of partnership agreement. Both are quite rare.

4C is an autosplinter in many expert partnerships. Why you would want to play in 3NT with an good 7 card Major and an outside void is a question the answer to which is beyond my ken.

As has been pointed out, a 3C bid is a gf and over 3C - 3M 4C would show the 6/6 hand. Your partner is to blame here for making a foolish bid.

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It's an Autosplinter for most people,.

 

If the auction goes:

 

1 1NT

3 3

4

 

You know that opener has shortness in hearts, right? And you're still not up to the level of 4.

 

So maybe a splinter should show a 5431 splinter and a jump shift followed by a new suit show a 5521 splinter or something. Gotta be a way to eliminate the redundancy.

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It's an Autosplinter for most people,.

 

If the auction goes:

 

1 1NT

3 3

4

 

You know that opener has shortness in hearts, right? And you're still not up to the level of 4.

 

So maybe a splinter should show a 5431 splinter and a jump shift followed by a new suit show a 5521 splinter or something. Gotta be a way to eliminate the redundancy.

No. An autosplinter guarantees a 6 or 7 card suit )+.

 

If you have a 2nd suit, bid it or jump in it.

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If your 2-level openings include semiforcing one-suiters, maybe p has a point. Still I think p should have assumed standard treatments if this is undiscussed in your partnership. Even with semi-forcing one-suiter openings available, the auto-splinter may be useful for hands with too little defense for a 2-opening.
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Hi,

 

since 3C is game forcing with clubs and

hearts, 4C is per default a splinter, ...

but as was stated you can play it as

whatever you want as long it is agreed on.

 

There is no merrit of 4C vs. 3C, 3C allows

partner to show his support with 3H / 4C

or 4H / 5C, showing / denying slam interest,

after 4C partner can only give prference.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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