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1NT-X-Pass


MickyB

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[hv=d=s&v=e&s=st6432h764da54c85]133|100|Scoring: IMP

Pass-(1NT)-X-(XX)

 

1NT is 12-14, dbl is penalties, XX shows a 5+card suit and asks partner to bid 2. Do you pass or bid 2, which would show a very weak hand? If you pass, and it continues 2-P-P back to you, do you pass, bid 2 or double for takeout?[/hv]

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No, pass would be non-forcing...we haven't promised values yet, we would have had no need to bid on a 4333 three-count. 2 over 2 does sound like a better hand than this, though.

ok, don't really like the system but you just need agreements. I would say it's tough to make good agreements if pass is unlimited; some people just play you are in a force through 2H after Xing a weak NT (an agreement I do not like).

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I would bid 2 Spade after the XX too. This shows wehre I live and makes it more difficult for them to find their fit.

 

Why should I pass? Do I believe, that my pd has a juice pen. double on their 5 card suit? They have 7 + cards in a suit, I have at least two. So 2 Spade is it.

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2.

My methods are that a direct bid shows a weak hand with direction, when responder's action is forcing on the 1NT opener. This hand is ok for me.

Pass would not promise values, it could be a balanced 0-count.

 

After opener's escape, take-out doubles and in principle forcing passes to 2. This means that responder is allowed to pass out a worthless hand, but responder's pass in a sequence like

1NT - x - xx - p

2 - p - 2 - p!

 

is forcing.

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