kenrexford Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 ♠KQx ♥xx ♦xx ♣Axxxxx Partner (MP) opens 1♥. Pass to you. You consider briefly 1♠, bit decide that 1NT, non-forcing, is allowed. LHO overcalls 2♦; partner bids 2♠ passed to you. Now what? Suppose that you play that a 3♣ call is a special convention that shows any number of hands, one of which can be this hand. Do not suppose that in answering the "Now what?" question, but consider that for the looming "And then?" LHO rebids her diamonds without a jump, and partner bids 4♦, passed to you. And then? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Sounds like you don't play a takeout double over 2♦ by opener's hand. Whatever 4♦ shows it seems my next call is 4♠. I hope this is 100% a cuebid and not a suggestion to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 As for the "now what" question, I would bid 3S. As I have denied 4 spades, I think this is pretty accurate. To answer the "and then" question it would be nice to know what kind of hands we could have for our 3C bid. I will probably bid 4H, but it may change my call. I think partner is showing a gameforcing hand and is not sure in what strain to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Hmm. You tell us that 3♣ can be a number of different hands, but you don't tell us which other hands it can be? How can we know what to bid now?If it shows exactly this hand, I will pass, as partner is obviously placing the contract knowing my full hand, and he is revealing that both he and LHO psyched... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted November 2, 2007 Author Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 One thing I should probably mention is that we would play 2NT as Lebensohl after a 2♠ call. Plus, 3♦ here would imply a need for ONE diamond stop and interest in 3NT. So, 3♣ would seem to be forcing and natural, possibly an advanced cue (depending upon the next call). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 I think we need to organise a special convention where we will talk about any number of topics, one of which can be Ken's state of mind (but maybe it is not). This surely is one of the most vague and intriging questions that I have seen on this forum. I think I am not smart enough to figure out exactly what we are asked. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 I had bid 3 Spade, showing a nice hand with 3 Spades, exactly what I have. Playing Rexford 3♣ bids, like nowadays everybody does, I still had bid 3 Spade, because this had shown my hand. But if I had taken seat in the mbc after my predecessor bid it up to 3 Club, I would choose 5 Clubs, showing my control. Pd seems to have a hand like Axxxx,AKQxxx,x,x so 6 Spade is the goal. Oh, I just read, that I cannot bid 5 Club, because one of the meaning of 3 Club had been "natura"l. So I bid a scientific 6 Spade, which must show this hand at last. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Straightforward 4♠, what am I missing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 This looks like a very straightforward raise to 3♠, to answer the Now what part. As to the what then part I can's see any possible reason to bid anything else than 3♠ on the previous turn, so I've got to abstain. I can't have this hand after that sequence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Ah but Harald, you are playing a Special Convention! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 ♠KQx ♥xx ♦xx ♣Axxxxx Partner (MP) opens 1♥. Pass to you. You consider briefly 1♠, bit decide that 1NT, non-forcing, is allowed. LHO overcalls 2♦; partner bids 2♠ passed to you. Now what? Suppose that you play that a 3♣ call is a special convention that shows any number of hands, one of which can be this hand. Do not suppose that in answering the "Now what?" question, but consider that for the looming "And then?" LHO rebids her diamonds without a jump, and partner bids 4♦, passed to you. And then? Can live with 3clubs......I got to use my special convention after all. 5nt now over 4D. pick a slam. I play 4D here as rkc for clubs here but did not see that alert on your OP. :unsure: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Ah but Harald, you are playing a Special Convention! Sure Han, but I'll definitely apply that for hands I can't show handily by a natural bid. B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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