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No keycards but...


zasanya

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Okay, to repeat myself: If 4NT is keycard, I will cuebid 4. If 4 is keycard, I will bid RKC. It seems like Josh wants to make the point (over and over) that if partner shows "two with the queen" I have to play 6 instead of 5. I am not sure why this is a reason to pass 4 with a slam try hand, but there you go.

 

So if partner has a minimum, like Ax AQJxxx x QJxx with which yes, I would bid 4, I will have to play 5 on a finesse. Sometimes I will go down in 5 when Josh was making 4.

 

On the other hand, if partner has a slightly better hand like Ax AKxxxx x Axxx then I get to play my high-percentage 6 contract while Josh is playing 4.

 

And if partner happens to actually have a maximum hand, like Ax AKxxxxx Ax Ax then I get to play my totally cold grand slam when Josh is playing 4.

 

I think bidding 4 on x KQJxxxx x QJxx is bad bridge, because partner is entitled to make a slam try with a good hand, or double for penalty when the opponents compete to 4. In either case my glorious one keycard and one or so defensive tricks will be a disappointment. I do not want partner passing my 4 overcalls in fear that I have a 4 preempt. If this is the case, what exactly is my call over 3 on Ax AKxxxxx Ax Ax? Can I really make the same bid on a hand where I have nine tops that I make on a 4 preempt? Or do I have to bid 5, going down (possibly doubled) when partner is weak?

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