awm Posted November 2, 2007 Report Share Posted November 2, 2007 Okay, to repeat myself: If 4NT is keycard, I will cuebid 4♠. If 4♠ is keycard, I will bid RKC. It seems like Josh wants to make the point (over and over) that if partner shows "two with the queen" I have to play 6♥ instead of 5♥. I am not sure why this is a reason to pass 4♥ with a slam try hand, but there you go. So if partner has a minimum, like Ax AQJxxx x QJxx with which yes, I would bid 4♥, I will have to play 5♥ on a finesse. Sometimes I will go down in 5♥ when Josh was making 4♥. On the other hand, if partner has a slightly better hand like Ax AKxxxx x Axxx then I get to play my high-percentage 6♥ contract while Josh is playing 4♥. And if partner happens to actually have a maximum hand, like Ax AKxxxxx Ax Ax then I get to play my totally cold grand slam when Josh is playing 4♥. I think bidding 4♥ on x KQJxxxx x QJxx is bad bridge, because partner is entitled to make a slam try with a good hand, or double for penalty when the opponents compete to 4♠. In either case my glorious one keycard and one or so defensive tricks will be a disappointment. I do not want partner passing my 4♥ overcalls in fear that I have a 4♥ preempt. If this is the case, what exactly is my call over 3♠ on Ax AKxxxxx Ax Ax? Can I really make the same bid on a hand where I have nine tops that I make on a 4♥ preempt? Or do I have to bid 5♥, going down (possibly doubled) when partner is weak? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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