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1C-1H-2NT-3C-3H-4C


kgr

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Hm.

 

"Forcing(F): partner must bid, I can pass next round".

"Forcing one round(F1): partner must bid, I owe him a rebid."

"Forcing to game(FG): nobody passes until game is bid."

"Forcing to game or 4 of a minor(FG/4m): nobody passes until game or 4 of a minor is bid."

 

It might be easier if we knew which one of these (if any) 3 is in SAYC. If 3 is F1, then 4 is not forcing. If it's FG/4m, then 4 is not forcing. If it's FG, then 4 is clearly forcing. F is less clear, but I think 4 is not forcing in that case, too.

 

If 3 is not forcing, then imo neither is 4.

 

I haven't looked in the SAYC booklet or any other written reference - this is all off the top of my head - so maybe there's some definitive statement somewhere. If so, I"m sure someone will mention it. :P

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I can't find a hand which would want to suggest 4 as a final contract to p. It's an unspeakably, amazingly narrow handtype. Actually, it just doesn't exist. Partner could have 3 clubs.

 

4=forcing forcing.

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CBS is not part of SAYC so I suppose 3 is NF. Then so is 4.

 

If 3 is forcing, it should be game forcing. I think it's a cue for . To set clubs as trump, responder jumps to 4 over 2N.

umm hello, GERBER?!

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If 3 is a natural call it doesn't make sense to me that is could be a sign-off. But suppose it could be. Then the 3 bid has to show 3-card support and game interest even opposite a s/o. In this scenario 4 should be a stop signal: We play here. I can't imagine playing like this though.

 

Assuming 3 is invitational, 3 is accepting and showing 3-card support. In this scenario I can't find any meaning for 4 at all. The possible bids should be 3NT, 4 and 5.

 

Assuming 3 is gameforcing, 3 must show 3-card support and suggest playing in hearts. In this scenario 4 say "We should play in s, not 's" and of course is forcing.

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Assuming 3 is gameforcing, 3 must show 3-card support and suggest playing in hearts. In this scenario 4 say "We should play in s, not 's" and of course is forcing.

I meant it like that, but I'm used to play that 2NT is GF. That is probably not true is SAYC.

So what is the best bid to set and be able to RKC in 's afterwards?

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From the overview of SAYC in the official booklet:

"Few sequences are defined in the later rounds of “ACBL Standard Yellow Card”

auctions. Players are free to assign forcing, invitational or non-forcing meanings to

natural calls in such sequences."

http://www.d21acbl.com/References/Conventi...tem%20Notes.pdf

 

So it is entirely possible that the sequence is undefined as a standard.

 

I can construct hands that would want to remove 2N to a suit partscore, but I would expect such hands to pass the correction to 3H, so the 4C followup sounds like the 3C was intended as forcing.

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Hm.

 

"Forcing(F): partner must bid, I can pass next round".

"Forcing one round(F1): partner must bid, I owe him a rebid."

"Forcing to game(FG): nobody passes until game is bid."

"Forcing to game or 4 of a minor(FG/4m): nobody passes until game or 4 of a minor is bid."

 

It might be easier if we knew which one of these (if any) 3 is in SAYC. If 3 is F1, then 4 is not forcing. If it's FG/4m, then 4 is not forcing. If it's FG, then 4 is clearly forcing. F is less clear, but I think 4 is not forcing in that case, too.

 

If 3 is not forcing, then imo neither is 4.

I agree, if we knew whether 4 was forcing in SAYC this question would be much easier to answer.

 

Anyway, I would take both 3 and 4 as forcing.

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From ACBL Standard Yellow card booklet it says

"4 is Gerber over ant 1NT or 2NT by pd including a rebid of 1NT or 2NT"

so in the above sequence 4 over 2NT would be Gerber

So not minorwood unless a special agreement

Eh Voila

Thanks. Then 3 followed by 4 presumably sets clubs as trump (or maybe 3 already set clubs as trump), since there is no other way of doing so. This means that 3 was forcing. At least if we can trust the system to be coherent.

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CBS is not part of SAYC so I suppose 3♣ is NF

 

In traditional SA, unlike over 1nt, everything over 2nt is considered natural & forcing. Weak hands have to pass 2nt. The idea is you have less room left, & you get more value with forcing calls for choice of games/slam exploration than with NF calls to improve the partial.

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In traditional SA, unlike over 1nt, everything over 2nt is considered natural & forcing. Weak hands have to pass 2nt. The idea is you have less room left, & you get more value with forcing calls for choice of games/slam exploration than with NF calls to improve the partial.

I totally agree with this post.

 

A number of methods have been devised which would allow you to get out below game after a 2NT rebid (for example, Wolff signoff). But in most partnerships, any bid over the 2NT rebid is forcing to game.

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Direct 4 = Ace asking for , but opener should bid 4NT if he doesn't think we should play .

 

Anyway, I think this sequence is invitational, i.e. NOT forcing.

 

Don't know about the Gerbil-convention... I thought the perpetrators only used it in sequences where NO suit was shown like 1N 4, and even if there are exceptions, when have been bid NATURALLY, another bid shows more of them!

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