kfay Posted October 23, 2007 Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=shqj109xxdjckjxxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP1♣!-(1♠)-2♦-(P)3♦-P-?[/hv] Partner's 1♣ shows 15+ JCP and your 2♦ shows 5+♥s and 6-9 HCP. What now? Everything's natural at this point. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted October 23, 2007 Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 4♣, I can't imagine never bidding them. And if partner bids 4♦, then 4♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted October 23, 2007 Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 What he said. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted October 23, 2007 Author Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 If you bid 4♣ then partner bids 5♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 23, 2007 Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 If you bid 4♣ then partner bids 5♣. and why shouldnt we pass? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted October 23, 2007 Report Share Posted October 23, 2007 If you bid 4♣ then partner bids 5♣. Easy pass, wouldn't bidding slam there be a total shot in the dark? If you make 6 then that's how it goes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 24, 2007 Report Share Posted October 24, 2007 As above: 4♣. However, I'd raise 5♣ to 6 because I could have a mere 55. Sure, it's a guess, but I'm willing to take that chance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 24, 2007 Report Share Posted October 24, 2007 My first thought was that 6♣ would be a "Futile Willy" bid, but 4♣ must be forcing. I think 6♣ makes a lot of sense. Playing with Ken Rexford I would bid 5♥, if only to get an interesting discusion about what that bid should mean :) Kinda like the Mikeh/Josh-discussion in another thread. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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