jillybean Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 [hv=d=s&v=n&s=sqjxhqxdaxxxxxcjx]133|100|Scoring: IMPP (P) 2nt (P)?[/hv] How do you make a slam try after partner opens 2nt?Maybe you dont want to with this hand but what are your methods if you do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 4♦ would be a natural slam try for me.I'd not do it with this suit I guess, but it's close. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted October 21, 2007 Author Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 4♦ would be a natural slam try for me. Dont try it with me, we'd be in a ♥ slam :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 4♦ would be a natural slam try for me. Dont try it with me, we'd be in a ♥ slam B) That would be fine with me, provided you had AKJxx or something like that in hearts. :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 there is the system where you bid 3♠ to force 3NT and then 4♦ to show this sort of hand (well, Harald is right, it would help if a few of those outside quacks were inside the suit) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 I would make a try, josh wouldnt, kranyak says its auto. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 I'm not invinting to anything with this trashy suit. Odds are you miss an ace out and quite likely a diamond as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 I would make a slam try in diamonds. Nothing wrong with Axxxxx opposite a 2NT opener, partner's the one with all the high cards. My methods are to respond 3S (to play in 3NT or diamond slam try) then raise partner's forced 3NT to 4NT. But methods aren't important; if I haven't agreed anything except, say, transfers and Stayman, I would just bid 4D. If I have agreed to play 4m as conventional, then I obviously agreed at the same time how to show a slam try with a minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 My slam try would be 3 !S as a transfer to 3 NT followed by 4 ♦ asking if pd would like his hand opposite my diamonds.If he does and confirms me that we have enough Aces, I try 6 D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 I'd like to make a 5 card diamond slam try if avaible, if not a 6 card diamond slam try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 3S force to 3NT then 4D showing slam try. Though not too happy about it with Qx and Jx and a ratty suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 This brings up a missed opportunity. 3♠ is often played as a relay to 3NT to allow Responder to make a slam try. So, why no super-acceptances of 3♠? I would bid 3♠. If partner bids 3NT, I pass. However, my partner will make super-acceptances. With a hand that is powerful for a minor slam consideration, he bids 4♣. I then bump up my responses one degree: 4♦ = RKCB for clubs4♥ = RKCB for diamonds4♠ = stiff heart, minors4NT = stiff spades, minors5♣ = 2245 quantitative5♦ = 2254 quantitative Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted October 21, 2007 Report Share Posted October 21, 2007 This brings up a missed opportunity. 3♠ is often played as a relay to 3NT to allow Responder to make a slam try. So, why no super-acceptances of 3♠? I would bid 3♠. If partner bids 3NT, I pass. However, my partner will make super-acceptances. With a hand that is powerful for a minor slam consideration, he bids 4♣. I then bump up my responses one degree: 4♦ = RKCB for clubs4♥ = RKCB for diamonds4♠ = stiff heart, minors4NT = stiff spades, minors5♣ = 2245 quantitative5♦ = 2254 quantitative I like. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted October 22, 2007 Report Share Posted October 22, 2007 I like to play 3♠ as a puppet to 3NT (to play 3NT, slam try with both minors or slam try with one minor). After partner's forced 3NT (no superacceptance! since usually it means I want to be in 3NT), I bid: Pass: to play 3NT 4♣: showing both minors 4♦: I pick diamonds rest: I pick clubs, cue 4♦: slam try in diamonds cue bidding rest: slam try in clubs, cueing So, on this hand, I would bid 2NT-3♠; 3NT-4♦; 4X-5♦. I would go for the slam try since the form of scoring is IMPs. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheoKole Posted October 26, 2007 Report Share Posted October 26, 2007 This is similar to a hand that would make a slamtry after a 1NT opening by partner. Obviously a similar hand after a 1NT opener would have to be stronger in high cards after 1NT. In my regular partnership, we bid stayman an then bid the minor in what is a very serious slam try, partner then reevaluates his hand according to fit, shape and controls in side suits. We play that this is the only exception that does not promise a 4 card major suit although it may have one. So our auction would be on this hand, 2NT -> 3 ♣ -> 3♦♥♠, -> 4 ♦ -> ? A 4 NT bid would be for pass by partner at this point, and I would need extra strength to insist on slam. Otherwise, partner would give his lowest cuebid possible in the side suits agreeing to Diamonds as trumps and we would go from there to either a small or grand slam. Theo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 26, 2007 Report Share Posted October 26, 2007 With a pick-up partner I would just bid 6N. To be honest I have no clue how to bid this hand scientifically in any of my partnerships, let alone in SAYC. Maybe a quantitative 4N would make some sense, but I'm not sure if p will know when to accept. The problem is that I don't want to ask p about his own trick potential, I want to know if he can fill my suit and if he has some additional quik tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 27, 2007 Report Share Posted October 27, 2007 I wouldn't make a slamtry... If I would want to, it depends on my agreements. With one partnership I play 4♣ as transfer ♦. After the transfer, I can start a cuebidding auction with slam ambition, bid 5♦ as signoff, or pass with a weak hand. Since I don't have any cuebids, I'm actually not capable of showing slam interest. :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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