Codo Posted October 4, 2007 Report Share Posted October 4, 2007 Sure after say 1 ♠ (2 ♥) pass (pass) X (pass) 2 NT shows the minors. Even after1 ♣ (2 ♦) pass (pass) X (pass) I won´t bid 2 NT "natural, because pd may well take it as Lebensohl. But in this particular -and not uncommon- case, there 2 NT could be natural, because nothing else makes much sense for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WrecksVee Posted October 4, 2007 Report Share Posted October 4, 2007 I am Rex, the other half of the misadventure. Jay made a slighgt error in stating what 1♦ might show. We would open 4441 hands 1♦ if there is a ♣ or ♠ singleton. So it is know he has 4♥ if he has only 4♦ and an unbalanced hand. It seems to me that this might not change the general discussion that favors 2♦. I still think I would double if I chose to bid. Partly that is because I think 2♦ is a one round force and as I did not double it would deny a four card major. I realize not everyone will think these are the right methods. It is not clear Jay and I are on the same page about that. Thanks to everyone who replied. It is a help to Jay and me in tinkering with our agreements. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted October 4, 2007 Report Share Posted October 4, 2007 As usual, a simple looking hand turns into disaster..... IMPS TM, you hold the following white versus red: Dealer: North Vul: E/W Scoring: IMP ♠ 875 ♥ J832 ♦ A87 ♣ QJ10 Partner opens 1♦, RHO overcalls 2♣ and it is your turn. What do you do? thanks in advance as always... Pass Have no idea why everyone thinks partner has 18 hcp and 4D. Easy pass, no problem yet. If partner reopens with X, I rebid 2D, np. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted October 4, 2007 Report Share Posted October 4, 2007 I'm not sure why people feel such a strong need to play in diamonds holding 3334 shape. In a style where 1♦ shows 4+ but could be a weak notrump with 4♦, I would not have any desire to raise. Why should a 4-3 fit with no potential ruffs in the 3-card hand be the right spot? Honestly I don't feel much desire to bid at all with this hand -- partner will balance with the vast majority of hands that can make game or even provide a good partial. I would pass playing standard but I would expect to miss a game not that infrequently. Of course partner will reopen with almost all hands that make game, but what do you do if he reopens with, say, a double? I guess we all would bid 2D, and partner will pass that with many hands that make game. If you bid 3D over his double, I would rather bid 2D right away.The appeal of an immediate 2D bid is that it expresses your values while you can. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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