jtfanclub Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 Partner opens one diamond, you have.... KJ8743T9876v87 If the opponents are struck by laryngitis, what's your plan? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 1♠ for now, not a problem yet.If partner rebids 2♦ I play 2♥ as forcing, and will have to decide between 2♥ and 2♠. I'll give him 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 Not playing reverse Flannery I'd bid 1S. Then it depends on partner's rebid, 1NT is quite different from 2D. I think I'd bid 2S over 2D (but I play 2H forcing to game usually, obviously if this is natural NF I would bid 2H). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matmat Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 1s wtp? i'll cross the rebid bridge problem when i get there. maybe p psyched and will pass 1s Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 1S... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zhs1971 Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 1♠, a good respond Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 I'd give opps my doctor's phone. Larygitis can be annoying ^^ Incidently, 1♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 30, 2007 Report Share Posted September 30, 2007 I respond 1♠. If partner rebids 2♦, I will bid 2♥, which I play as nonforcing (3♣ would be artificial and forcing). If partner rebids 2♣, I will bid 2♠ and hope that I can get out of the auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 Surely there's more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted October 1, 2007 Author Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 Surely there's more. No, sorry. Our auction went 1♦-1♠-1NT-2♥-2♠, making exactly. However, our 2♥ bid is defined as nonforcing, as we use GoLady with both majors and a true game force. I kinda figured that most people would respond 1♠, but was curious as to what people would then do over 1NT, 2♣, and 2♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 This hand is complicate in the systems I normally play. I play 1m 2 M as a weak two, so I must decide between: 1♦ 2 ♠ and forget about the hearts and1 ♦ 1 ♠ with the following sequences: 1 ♦ 1 ♠ 1 NT 2 ♥ (non forcing here)1 ♦ 1 ♠ 2 ♣ aua 2 ♥ is art. and forcing 2 ♠ is 8-111♦ 1 ♠ 2 ♦ pass maybe wrong 2 ♥ forcing, but we can survive, not GF yet. 2 ♠ 8-11 I think I had to forget the hearts and bid a direct 2 ♠. In a normal system, this is an easy 1 ♠ bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 1♠. Too early to make a plan, and it doesn't affect our decision anyway. Echo the comments about Reverse Flannery. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 Over either 2♣ or 2♦ by partner you are sort of forced to just rebid 2♠. If you happen to have a good heart fit you just chalk it up to a weakness of standard bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 I have the same problems as Roland, if caught asleep I might find myself too high. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Quantumcat Posted October 1, 2007 Report Share Posted October 1, 2007 How come nobody's passing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted October 2, 2007 Report Share Posted October 2, 2007 How come nobody's passing? Because the hand is way too good, we might miss game. Because 1D is unlikely to be our best spot. Because if you pass you might go down in 1D instead of making 4S opposite Qxxx Ax KQxx AKx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted October 2, 2007 Report Share Posted October 2, 2007 because HCP are not a good evaluation of the strength of this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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