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[hv=d=w&v=e&n=sakt8hakq2d974cak&s=sj75432h4da63c754]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 Pass  2    Pass  2

 Pass  2NT   Pass  3

 Pass  4    Pass  4

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

Hi all

 

1.do you respond 2d or 2s?

2. after 2nt do you bid 3h or 4h?

3.whats the corect auction with this hands?

 

*4h partner misunderstand the 3h bid.

*I play 2d waiting 2h negative

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The following are a beginner's thoughts, they are probably wrong:

 

If you add your points, 23 + 5 + 3 for singleton gives just on 31, if you feel lucky and want to try for slam, maybe you could bid:

 

2 - 2

2NT - 3

4 = some sort of super accept with 4 spades and 4 hearts?

 

It gets a bit tricky. There are hands where he has the required 23 points but you are missing 2 aces, he might have KQxx, KQJx, KQx, AK for example. He has to have at least 1 ace and the king of spades for his points so you'll always make 5/5NT.

 

Bid blackwood (regular will do, he has to have the king of spades) to find out he has 3 aces. You have 12 tricks unless they lead a diamond and spades not 2-1, if the queen was in diamonds and they led it you would have 12 tricks too, but if the queen was in diamonds and they didn't lead it you could have problems. But anyway, you have a good chance of having 12 tricks, I would bid 6 rather than 6NT just in case you need an extra trick somewhere, probably a lot of the field will stop in 4 so that's a good enough score.

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2c-2d; (the close to standard agreement for a suit bid here is 2 of the top 3 honors, it's not universal, but a good rule of thumb)

2n-4h (texas transfer to spades. most play that after a 2c opener, 2d response and 2n rebid the same systems are played as over a 2n opener)

4s-? (now... well... i think i just pass. clearly the slam is on. In an established partnership opener may somehow superaccept the texas transfer. 2d response typically shows some sort of positive feature, so slam exploration may be worthwhile from the opener's perspective)

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If North is going to cue bid, then 4 is better than 4. I can visualize:

 

2 - 2 (this suit isn't good enough for a positive)

2N - 3

4 - 4

 

You should be able to get there from here.

 

If North doesn't cue, my plan for the South hand would be:

 

... ....

2N - 3

3 - 4

 

which is a mild slam try. This seems accurate opposite a 22-24 hand.

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If North is going to cue bid, then 4 is better than 4. I can visualize:

 

2 - 2 (this suit isn't good enough for a positive)

2N - 3

4 - 4

 

You should be able to get there from here.

Skipping the first two bids, this is exactly how I'd bid it with my regular partner. (2NT=22-24).

With pick-up partners I'd expect to copy your auction.

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Hmm, it looks to me as if everyone is biased by seeing opener's hand (or assuming non-standard methods). Assuming I play transfers and texas transfer over the 2N rebid, I am pretty sure my auction would be

2C 2D 2N 4H 4S

3H transfer followed by 4S invites partner to bid slam even when he has only 2-card support, responder's hand clearly isn't good enough for that. Responder probably wants to make an "accept if you have an excellent fit AND good cards"-slam try, but that doesn't exist in standard methods.

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Texas is virtually unknown here in the UK. A 4H bid in response to 2NT would get the dummy.

 

(South African Texas where 4C showing a slam try in hearts, 4D a slam try in spades, is seen sometimes - I play it - but is not very common)

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