navit Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 [hv=n=s986h107daj10754c73&s=sa54hak92d8cakj82]133|200|[/hv] sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I would respond 1♦ although this would lead to the bad contract of 3NT (1♣ - 1♦ - 2♥ - 3♦ - 3NT). I can imagine that playing in 1♣ would lead to a good score about 82% of the time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I would have responded 1♦ (unless 2♦ would show this hand). Then S rebids 2♥, so you cannot stop under game, which is probably too high. So North's pass worked out fine.about 82% of the time 81.9425% to be exact. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 1 ♦ (or 2♦ if this was avaiable (it is not for me)) is clear cut, even if this don´t pay on all hands. I disagree with 2 HEart: You have 19 HCPs, no ten, a singelton in pds suit, there are some clues why 1 Heart should be enough. IfI can talk myself into 1 ♥, the bidding would be: 1♣ 1 ♦1 ♥ 2 ♦2 ♠ 3 ♦pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
navit Posted September 24, 2007 Author Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I thought with only 5hcp I should pass. The contract was 1 C but she made 4 With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain I usually pass with less than 6 HCPs, but this one has all the points in the 6-card and ♦10 as a bonus. If opener has a balanced 18 points you often make 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 1D, intending to rebid diamonds. This assumes you dont play weak jump shifts.If you do, bid 2D. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I thought with only 5hcp I should pass. The contract was 1 C but she made 4 With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain First of all you have a reasonable 6 card suit, and if you really have too, you can add two points for the length to your HCP points, which will give you7 points. Bidding on achieves two things: #1 You have a fair chance of improving the partscore It is usually better, if the long suit of the weak hand is the trump suit#2 Given the quality of your suit, you dont mind playing 3NT, if partner holds a strong bal. hand, because your side may provide your side with 6 tricks, just imagine, partner hold Kx or Qx in the suit. Exchange two diamond cards with aclub and heart card and passing is right.If you remove only one diamond card,bidding on is a mood point. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: You dont bid on, because you are afraidof partner playing a 3-2 club fit, you bid on, because you have a nice hand, a min. hand, but still quite nice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 what gerben said Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I play a nice 2♦ response as 2-6 with one partner, it might work very well on this deal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 North has a clear 1♦ response. Quite frankly, even if you play 2♦ as a weak jump shift, the North hand may be too good. But I wouldn't argue if a partner of mine bid 2♦ as a weak jump shift with the North hand. I do not believe that anyone holding the South cards would stop short of game after a 1♦ response. 3NT is not a very good contract, but I have seen worse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 If North's hand was xxx xx AJ10x xxxx, many might still respond 1D, but noone would criticize a pass. If North's hand was xxx xx AQxx xxxx, everyone would respond 1D. Now compare xxx xx AJ10xxx xx to xxx xx AQxx xxxx and which hand would you rather have as dummy for 3NT if you had 19 HCP with ♦Kxx? So it is very correct to upgrade xxx xx AJ10xxx xx and treat it like it was 6-7 HCP. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zasanya Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I would pass too. I really do not see what I have to gain by bidding 1♦.I am generally happy with 82% probability of a good score. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 [hv=n=s986h107daj10754c73&s=sa54hak92d8cakj82]133|200|[/hv] sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C Not only does this have an excellent chance of being a good score, but it will freak out the opponents. In a long match, or against regular opponents, passing out the 1 club will mean that next time LHO has a marginal hand, he may bid it rather than waiting. Offshape X's and weak 1NT overcalls are good things...for you. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Passing 1♣ is crazy, this hand is better than many 8-counts. I like to think I would bid this hand 1C 1D 1H 2D 2S 3D P in standard, but I am biased by seeing all the hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 i think smothering that fine N hand into a 2-6 range isnt doing it much justice. It's ok for a 5-8 range WJS, though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I'd respond 1♦. Methods help a lot, though. For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass. Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined. As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I'd respond 1♦. Methods help a lot, though. For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass. Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined. As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more. You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Passing with this hand wouldn't occur to me.Playing standard I'd bid 1♦.Playing T-Walsh I'd bid 1♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 I'd respond 1♦. Methods help a lot, though. For me, 1♣-P-2♦ is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1♦...2♦ is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2♦ oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2♦ to most other contracts, except a 2♣ rebid, which I'd pass. Opener reverses, so I now bid 2♠ as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3♣, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined. As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3♣ is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more. You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange... In that specific sequence of a minor-response-jump reverse, the only two out spots are three of Opener's minor or three of Responder's suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted September 24, 2007 Report Share Posted September 24, 2007 Passing with this hand wouldn't occur to me.Playing standard I'd bid 1♦.Playing T-Walsh I'd bid 1♠. Agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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