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response to 1 c


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1 (or 2 if this was avaiable (it is not for me)) is clear cut, even if this don´t pay on all hands.

 

I disagree with 2 HEart: You have 19 HCPs, no ten, a singelton in pds suit, there are some clues why 1 Heart should be enough.

 

IfI can talk myself into 1 , the bidding would be:

 

1 1

1 2

2 3

pass

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I thought with only 5hcp I should pass. The contract was 1 C but she made 4

 

With 6 D should I have bid them even If I only had 5HCP. Please explain

First of all you have a reasonable 6 card suit,

and if you really have too, you can add two points

for the length to your HCP points, which will give you

7 points.

 

Bidding on achieves two things:

 

#1 You have a fair chance of improving

the partscore

It is usually better, if the long suit

of the weak hand is the trump suit

#2 Given the quality of your suit, you dont

mind playing 3NT, if partner holds a

strong bal. hand, because your side

may provide your side with 6 tricks,

just imagine, partner hold Kx or Qx in

the suit.

 

Exchange two diamond cards with a

club and heart card and passing is right.

If you remove only one diamond card,

bidding on is a mood point.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: You dont bid on, because you are afraid

of partner playing a 3-2 club fit, you bid on,

because you have a nice hand, a min. hand,

but still quite nice.

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North has a clear 1 response. Quite frankly, even if you play 2 as a weak jump shift, the North hand may be too good. But I wouldn't argue if a partner of mine bid 2 as a weak jump shift with the North hand.

 

I do not believe that anyone holding the South cards would stop short of game after a 1 response.

 

3NT is not a very good contract, but I have seen worse.

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If North's hand was xxx xx AJ10x xxxx, many might still respond 1D, but noone would criticize a pass.

 

If North's hand was xxx xx AQxx xxxx, everyone would respond 1D.

 

Now compare xxx xx AJ10xxx xx to xxx xx AQxx xxxx and which hand would you rather have as dummy for 3NT if you had 19 HCP with Kxx?

 

So it is very correct to upgrade xxx xx AJ10xxx xx and treat it like it was 6-7 HCP.

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[hv=n=s986h107daj10754c73&s=sa54hak92d8cakj82]133|200|[/hv]

 

 

sOUTH OPENED WITH 1 C. Opponent passed . What should N have responded? She passed and N made 4 C

Not only does this have an excellent chance of being a good score, but it will freak out the opponents. In a long match, or against regular opponents, passing out the 1 club will mean that next time LHO has a marginal hand, he may bid it rather than waiting. Offshape X's and weak 1NT overcalls are good things...for you.

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I'd respond 1. Methods help a lot, though.

 

For me, 1-P-2 is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1...2 is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2 oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2 to most other contracts, except a 2 rebid, which I'd pass.

 

Opener reverses, so I now bid 2 as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined.

 

As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3 is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.

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I'd respond 1. Methods help a lot, though.

 

For me, 1-P-2 is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1...2 is weaker, and this is just enough. I want to declare 2 oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2 to most other contracts, except a 2 rebid, which I'd pass.

 

Opener reverses, so I now bid 2 as a weakness relay. When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined.

 

As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3 is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.

You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange...

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I'd respond 1.  Methods help a lot, though.

 

For me, 1-P-2 is intermediate (8-11 or so), so 1...2 is weaker, and this is just enough.  I want to declare 2 oppoiste the most common hand pattern of a balanced minimum, and I'd also prefer 2 to most other contracts, except a 2 rebid, which I'd pass.

 

Opener reverses, so I now bid 2 as a weakness relay.  When partner rebids 2NT, I have to use judgment to determine whether to pass or bid what I believe to be the more disciplined 3, which should be passed if Opener is also disciplined. 

 

As Responder, however, it woukld have been nice on this hand to play 2NT as the weak relay, because I know that passing 3 is right, and I cannot be tempted by 2NT any more.

You don't play a jump reverse as GF Ken? - strange...

In that specific sequence of a minor-response-jump reverse, the only two out spots are three of Opener's minor or three of Responder's suit.

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