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4-5 maj/min resp to 1NT


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Playing SAYC, my style with 5+ in a minor and game-going values in response to 1NT (11+ in response to a 15-17 opening) is to start with Stayman if I also have a 4 card major. If not, I bid 2 to transfer to 3, then bid my minor (4 to show diamonds as 3 would be sign-off). With invitational values, I use Stayman and then 2NT with no fit (ignoring the minor) or respond 3 min directly with no major.

 

The following sequences show game-going values as follows:

 

1NT-2-2-3 shows EITHER major and diamonds

 

1NT-2-2-3 shows 4/5+ spades/clubs

 

1NT-2-2-3 shows 4/5+ hearts/clubs

 

The second case is especially useful, as opener has not denied 4 spades. Opener can place the hand in game in either of responder's suits, bid 3NT, bid 3 to show 5 in that suit (yes, I open 1NT with a 5 card major), or bid either of responder's suits below game as a slam try. 4NT is a quantitative invitation to 6NT or 6 if responder has 6+ in that suit.

 

There's just one fly in the ointment. What if opener has 2-4-3-4 shape with Qxx or lower in diamonds? Opener doesn't know if the better choice is 3NT or 5. The opponents are going to lead diamonds every time. If responder has 3 small diamonds, 5 is down right away, but 3NT may have a shot if diamonds are 4-3 - the most likely split. OTOH, if responder has 2 small (or fewer) diamonds, then 5 is better, as a 5-3 split is more likely than 4-4.

 

I suggest 3 as an asking bid showing precisely 2-4-3-4 shape. Responder can judge where to place the contract, or can cuebid 4 to show control, or use Blackwood (or RKCB) for clubs, or bid 4 to suggest bailing out in that contract. (With 3-4-3-3, just bid 3NT, which responder should pass unless seeking a slam.)

 

Switch the minors, and it becomes more difficult, since the asking bid of 4 is past 3NT. I address this by tightening the criteria for 4 - opener should have a minimum hand with 3 small clubs (no Q or J). With Q or J, it's best to bid 3NT, hoping for at least Jx or Qx in dummy; with better than minimum and no club honor, 5 suggests itself (taking a chance that responder has 2 or fewer diamonds with at most 4 total in /). Now, responder can bailout in 4, place the hand in 5, or even try 4. Consider the following hand opposite 1NT:

 

-- AQxx AQJxxx xxx

 

After Stayman, responder certainly doesn't want to agree right away, since slam in diamonds is likely with support, so he bids a forcing 3. After opener bids 4, responder has an easy retreat to 4. The opponents take their three clubs, but declarer probably gets the rest. Responder would also correct to 4 with this hand if opener bids 3NT after 3.

 

In sum, I think the above agreement solves the biggest problem with the use of Stayman with 4/5+ maj/min, namely, deciding between 3NT and 5 of the minor when there is no 4-4 major fit. It preserves all of the options for slam bidding, and also allows for a bailout in 4 of the minor when there is a vulnerability (3-3, no stopper) in the other minor. It does give up the 3 natural bid, but the chance that diamonds are the best spot are so remote that this is not much of a loss - both opener and responder can have at most 4 diamonds. It doesn't solve every problem - there are still the borderline hands with Kx in the unbid minor, where the right call depends on controls and suit texture.

 

So my questions are:

 

1. What do you think of this idea?

 

2. What problems, if any, would come up?

 

3. Is this use of the 3 (or 4)bid included in any common system? I've never heard of it being used to show exactly 3 small.

 

And please don't bother with a response like, "There are plenty of methods out there to deal with these kinds of hands, no need to reinvent the wheel." That's just a not-so-subtle put-down, and I've gotten it enough in this forum.

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