han Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 The opponents bid to 2S and you hold: [hv=v=n&s=saxxhq87xdqcaq98x]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Would you balance after 1C - p - 1S - p2S - p - p - ? What if the auction was: p - p - 1S - p2S - p - p - ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 2NT and pull diams to hearts on both cases. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
matmat Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 I don't think I do. but i am a chicken =) i feel like p probably has 2=3=5=3 and will likely bypass the 3 card club suit on the way to 3d The second auction is i think a little bit clearer to me. (though i always get this stuff wrong). p with inferred spade shortness did not prebalance with a passed hand to his right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 Pass in the first case, 3C in the second. In the first case I would bid 1NT the first time around. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 Balancing seems suicidal on this hand in the first auction (to put it mildly). The second auction is much different as LHO hasn't bid clubs (making a bad club break less likely) and partner hasn't had the chance to overcall 1H (making a heart game much more likely) and the opps have 8 trumps for sure (making a fit more likely). However, it is not possible for me to have this hand in that auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArcLight Posted September 8, 2007 Report Share Posted September 8, 2007 >However, it is not possible for me to have this hand in that auction. Meaning you would have overcalled 2♣? (the 2nd auction) I would pass in the first auction If I had not overcalled 2♣ in the 2nd auction I think I would pass, assuming the opponents are decent players. Let them make their 2♠. I think if I bid it will result in an occasional phone number and is not worth it overall, even if you make some partscores or sac at -50 instead of -110 or -140. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 9, 2007 Report Share Posted September 9, 2007 Pass first, 2NT second. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted September 9, 2007 Report Share Posted September 9, 2007 However, it is not possible for me to have this hand in that auction. You play 1NT in direct seat as a two-suiter? Or you play something more special than that? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted September 9, 2007 Report Share Posted September 9, 2007 However, it is not possible for me to have this hand in that auction. You play 1NT in direct seat as a two-suiter? Or you play something more special than that? Uh, I think he plays 2♣ shows clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted September 9, 2007 Report Share Posted September 9, 2007 Pass seems clear in the first auction. In the second I'd have overcalled 2♣ previously. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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