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[hv=d=s&v=b&s=saqhdkqj7542ckt83]133|100|Scoring: Imps[/hv]

 

1-P-1-X

P - 3-4-P

?

 

You are south playing 2/1 GF and open 1 playing with a competent partner whose 3 and 4 initially would have been long suit but not good hand.

 

Explain logic for your choice.

 

Ben

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I have AQ of a suit I might be void in and a void in opps suit. Questions is going to be 6http://mnet.bg/~mfn/d.gif or 6http://mnet.bg/~mfn/s.gif. I don't know this pd's style but I think 6http://mnet.bg/~mfn/d.gif is best contract, if pd corrects to 6http://mnet.bg/~mfn/s.gif we'll play it there.

 

Mike B)

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5h exclusion key card in spades.

If 5h not available then just 6s.

 

Pd bid a vulnerable game so he must surely have the sK and a minor suit ace and might as well have more values.

If you would like, in response to exclusion blackwood in 's your partner shows two keycards for 's. I am not sure how many ;s he needs to show the QUEEN when he doesn't hold it, so to keep it simple, he denies the Queen.

 

Ben

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I am somewhat surprised that no one has yet commented on the bidding. Why did South pass after the double holding a fine 7 card D suit. To me this pass would suggest a min flat hand without 3/4 card support for partner, certainly not the hand he actually held.

The 2 key cards response is a little awkward - pd has the K of S, and which minor suit A. I suspect that 6D will play better than 6S, so that is my bid.

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As the bidder of the akward pass, let me say that nothing else seems appropriate to me. I am going to come back into the bidding on the next round, as in fact I did. One might question if the pass spurred partner to jump to 4 with a weaker or stronger hand than usual, but one thing, we were playing support redouble, so I deny three card support here. 2 would be weak and 3 would probably steer us away from any possible contract, and it is unclear how this particular partner would have taken it.

 

Answer forthcoming soon, get your choice in.

 

Ben

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Why did you pass after the Double? 2 is an obligated bid imo, or 2 if you really want to show some s... I'd never pass this hand. Dbl would mean 3 card , supporting a 4 card, so bidding is 0-2s.

 

Anyway, 5 as exclusion blackwood is pretty crazy, because you can easily go -1 with the wrong aces outside. So it has no use, so just blast into 6.

 

I do have a question: what does 1-p-2 mean? weak or GF? Might influence my descision, but I suspect it's weak...

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Why did you pass after the Double? 2 is an obligated bid imo, or 2 if you really want to show some s... I'd never pass this hand. Dbl would mean 3 card , supporting a 4 card, so bidding is 0-2s.

 

Anyway, 5 as exclusion blackwood is pretty crazy, because you can easily go -1 with the wrong aces outside. So it has no use, so just blast into 6.

 

I do have a question: what does 1-p-2 mean? weak or GF? Might influence my descision, but I suspect it's weak...

for me, 1-p-2 is a non-forcing fit jump, showing 5, a fit. Basically a muilderberg hand with the a know minor fit.

 

As to "why" I pass and your "obligated" 2 bid. My bidding theory is somewhat different from yours. For me, 2 is a HORRIBLE, HORRIBLE bid as it is non-forcing, and 1) screams weakness with no fit what so ever (support redbl and raises possible, 2) and is semi-preemptive.

 

I am not asking anyone to accept my bidding strategy/principle, if you can't stand pass imagine you misclicked.

 

Ben

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Personally I would have bid 3http://mnet.bg/~mfn/d.gif over the X, I have a nice 7 card http://mnet.bg/~mfn/d.gif suit am void in their suit, have nice support for pd, and I really don't think I want to play in http://mnet.bg/~mfn/s.gif contract yet. And I would also like to protect that Kof http://mnet.bg/~mfn/c.gif and ruffing with AQ of trump cannot be good unless pd KJ109xx or more.

 

Mike B)

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