Tomi2 Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 Hi, what does a jump to 5NT mean for you in situations, where no fit has been found and 4Nt would be invitional to a small slam, for example: 1NT - 5NT or 2NT - 5NT or in my case in a polish club bidding: 1♣-3NT-5NT, 3NT is ballanced 13-15hcp with stoppers in majors but no 4 card suit is there a standard meaning, does anyone have a special agreement on this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 Usually pick a slam, in the auctions you described where no suit has been bid its quantitative to 7N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 I think (but confell I am not sure) the standard meaning is "forcing to 6NT, invitational to seven." That is what I would expect it to mean in a partnership that had not specifically discussed the bid. Partner reacts pretty much as he would to 4NT invitational to six, bidding a good four-card suit at the six level or a good five-card suit at the seven level, otherwise choosing between 6NT and 7NT. TLGoodwin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 "confess," not "confell" (whatever confell might mean) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 Usually pick a slam, in the auctions you described where no suit has been bid its quantitative to 7N Ditto. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ralph23 Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 Quantitative, means "Partner, select between 6nt and 7nt." I think it was Mike Lawrence (?? maybe someone else, like Jerry Helms) who was explaining this one time and confessed he knew and adopted the convention/treatment, but had never had it come up!! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 Usually the quantitative. However, I have been playing with a rookie that 5NT is always pick-a-minor. It actually seems to come up a tad more often. When's the last time you actually bid 2NT-P-5NT? However, the simplistic message of "I have both minors -- pick one dammit" seems to be a tad more frequent and useful, IMO. Not that either is all that important in the greater scheme of things... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted August 24, 2007 Report Share Posted August 24, 2007 I learnt 5NT to be quantitative to 7, so bid either 6 or 7NT please. It has happened only once in my life. Final result was +460, quite nice judgement :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted August 25, 2007 Report Share Posted August 25, 2007 Usually pick a slam, in the auctions you described where no suit has been bid its quantitative to 7N Ditto. Same for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted August 25, 2007 Report Share Posted August 25, 2007 Usually pick a slam, in the auctions you described where no suit has been bid its quantitative to 7N This is my view too, but the 'auld Scots' play this as asking for 4-card suits upwards with no interest in a grand slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenberg Posted August 26, 2007 Report Share Posted August 26, 2007 I have looked up 1N-5N in the Encyclopedia and I can tell you that they don't tell you. Under Quantitative 5NT they explain that it is an invitatition to 7 but they do not say if the Quantitative meaning is standard. Under Five Notrump they explain that if the 5NT bid is undiscussed but "clearly forcing" then the BWS 2001 consensus of experts says that it is pick-a-slam. Now there is sort of a weird logic here: If 1N-5N forces 6 and invites 7, then since it is "clearly forcing" it must be, if undiscussed, pick a slam. I doubt they mean for this logic to be taken so literally. Playing 1N-5N as pick a slam seems odd to me unless responder has 4-4-4-4 distribution. So I think it is a quantitative raise to at least 6. I have always assumed 1N-5N invites 7. I have never used it or seen it used. It's like opening 5H or 5S. AS I understand it. partner should look only for the A and K of the bid major. If he has neither he passes, if he has one he raises to 6, if he has both he raises to 7. Never used that one either, but if it ever comes up, I am ready. I hope partner is also ready. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted August 26, 2007 Report Share Posted August 26, 2007 For some rare bids, like opening 5M or raising 1NT (or 2NT) to 5NT, when you have no special partnership agreement (meaning you've never discussed it, and never assigned a particular meaning to it), the only thing that makes logical sense in the context of most natural bidding systems is that the former asks responder to bid 6 or 7 with 1 or 2 of the top trump honors, and the latter asks opener to bid 7NT if he's maximum for his previous bid, otherwise to bid 6NT. But I wouldn't bet the farm that a novice partner (including "perpetual" novices) or a pickup partner would be able to figure that out at the table. B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 27, 2007 Report Share Posted August 27, 2007 Hi, what does a jump to 5NT mean for you in situations, where no fit has been found and 4Nt would be invitional to a small slam, for example: 1NT - 5NT or 2NT - 5NT or in my case in a polish club bidding: 1♣-3NT-5NT, 3NT is ballanced 13-15hcp with stoppers in majors but no 4 card suit is there a standard meaning, does anyone have a special agreement on this? 1NT - 5NT2NT - 5NT quantitative, and I would assume the samefor the sequence you gave. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted August 27, 2007 Report Share Posted August 27, 2007 I've always known it to be forcing to 6N and invitational to 7N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheoKole Posted September 19, 2007 Report Share Posted September 19, 2007 With a very good partner at my local club, we had this auction the last time I played. Partner dealt and bid... 1 ♠ - 2 ♣ - 2 ♦ - 2 ♥ (4th suit) - 3 NT I have Q10 ♠, K109x ♥, K10 ♦, AKQx ♣ I figured that he had a 5-3-4-1 pattern with between 16 to 20 point range. Since I wasn't playing with my regular partner, I couldn't ask for Aces without a possibility of missunderstanding. (We play SuperGerber, after a natural 3NT bid 5 ♣ asks for Aces). My 10's and 9's in partners suits figured to be worth their weight in gold and I made a quantative bid of 5NT, inviting 7NT and insisting on 6NT. My p closed the auction in 6NT which was made. Cheers Theo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted September 19, 2007 Report Share Posted September 19, 2007 1. Its pick-a-slam in a large majority of auctions. 2. Its Grand Slam Force when we have a specific trump suit. 3. Its invitational to 7 (and forcing to 6) directly over a NT opening. 4. I can think of one instance where its NF: 2♣ - 2♦ - 5N. I think I've made this call once in my life. I held a balanced 29 or 3) I think 5. I think its 2 places to play in some rare instances, e.g., 3♠ - dbl - 5♠ - 5N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 20, 2007 Report Share Posted September 20, 2007 5. Is not a jump Phil :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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