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[hv=d=s&v=n&s=s7h6432d85ckt7543]133|100|Scoring: IMP

W N E S

- - - P

1 1 4 P

P X P ?[/hv]

 

[hv=d=s&v=n&s=s7h6432d85ckt7543]133|100|Scoring: IMP

W N E S

- - - P

1 1 4 P

P X P ?[/hv]

 

What should be the meaning for these doubles and your actions now?

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[hv=d=n&v=e&s=sj7hkjt7dk95cakj8]133|100|Scoring: IMP

W N E S

- - - 1NT

2 P 2 P

P X P ?

 

2: capp (one suited)

2: ask[/hv]

 

What should be the meaning for these doubles and your actions now?

X of 2 clubs should be takeout, IMHO, so this X should be a balanced 6+ count. Leave it in unless you have good reason to pull. You don't, so pass.

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Why is it a takeout of clubs when the 2 bidder has just said he has diamonds by passing the 2?

 

Also, don't you think we need a little application to write bidding sequences in like we have for hands, it can be quite hard to read when the columns don't match up.

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Why is it a takeout of clubs when the 2 bidder has just said he has diamonds by passing the 2?

A double on the original 2 could be t/o on clubs based on the theory that a hand that wants to dbl any other suit for t/o could wait an still be able to double at the 2-level. I would rather play a dbl of 2 as t/o of spades, though. If the capp-overcaller has a red suit, it's still safe to double in next round, but if he has spades it's nice to show your hand immediately before p gets forced to bid at the 3-level. If he has clubs (which he's less likely to have because he might not want to play at the 3-level and if he does he can just overcall 3), doubling in next round is more attractive than doubling spades because it's easier for p to leave in a dbl at the 3-level.

 

Anyway, I would assume a double of 2 to be either "stolen bid" (Stayman) or showing clubs. Here in the Netherlands I think the default agreement among intermediate players is that it shows clubs (since nobody plays capp here you would have to assume the default agreement).

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