Question about Polish Clup

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

can opener pass in the sequence

 

1C (1) - 1D (2)

???

 

(1) polish, i.e. either weak NT or strong

(2) 0-7

 

Thanks for your help.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[tedi16]

No.

 

And 1D can have other meanings than negative. In wj2005 these are:

1. 0-8 (not 7-8 with 4 card major)

2. 9-11 unbalanced with minor(s)

3. 12-16 balanced (to play nt from partner's hand)

[P_Marlowe]

To clarify the reason: In case our opponents

play Polish Club, we currently have no real bid

for a strong bal. hand.

This is no problem in the seat behind the 1C

opener, but may be a problem behind responder

in case 1D can be passed, if it cant be passed,

than we have no problem.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[Gerben42]

In classical Matula style, 1♦ includes also 16+ balanced hands. Even if they do not include this, after 1♣ - 1♦, opener does not have a minimum hand with 4 cards in ♦, since he would have opened 1♦ with up to 5♣, and 2♣ with 6 or more ♣.

 

So it's 100% forcing in any PC variant I've ever seen.

[MickyB]

I've never seen this played as NF in Polish Club but I have in Swedish Club (Svan). I'm sure that there are PC pairs out there who play it as NF but for the vast majority it will be forcing.

[helene_t]

PC evolved from Vienna, in which 1♦ is NF. It's possible that some old Polish players who learned PC in the 40's play it as NF. This is pure speculating, though. I don't know how Polish players bid in 40s.