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What went wrong?


awm

What's the mistake?  

22 members have voted

  1. 1. What's the mistake?

    • North should bid on over 3NT
      2
    • South should not have bid 3NT
      3
    • I think 3NT is a fine spot on these hands
      16
    • No way to tell without detailed cuebidding agreements
      0
    • No way to bid this without my favorite relay system
      0
    • Other
      1


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[hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak4h765dt76caqt4&s=sq765haqdakq54c86]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

Playing 2/1 with opponents silent, N/S had the following auction with north dealing:

 

1 - 1

1NT - 2

3 - 3

3 - 3nt

pass

 

On the actual cards, 6 will make. It was bid at the other table; the auction started the same and then south jumped to 4NT keycard over opener's 3 preference.

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I really think the odds are less than 50%, so 3NT is a good spot (sorry, no exact calculations). Not to say that they have to stop bidding at 3NT, just that it happens to be the best spot.
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I wouldn't know what to do with the 4th spade (unless they break 3-3) Besides, trumps could split 4-1 or both kings could be offside. So I would be happy to stay in 3N.

 

I think the bidding is fine. North's hand may improve due to the 2 bid but after the 3 bid it sounds as if the club values are vasted. Besides North has bad trumps and bad shape. South told his story with 3 so it's fine that he offfered to play 3N and it's fine that North passed that.

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North has a normal opening and no reason to bid on over 3NT.

 

The south hand could bid on, but I don't think it's a "must".

South has a 5 loser hand opposite an opening, which is very often enough for a slam, and IMPs the loss between 5 and 3NT is much smaller than the gain of 6 vs. 3NT. But to try this, you need a system that allows you to investigate about a (minor) slam without passing 5.

 

If you used 4 as RKCB, you could continue:

4 - 4NT (2A noQ) (Best possible answer)

5 (still not enough) - ?

I think with 2 kings north should bid 6, with just a K and a Q he should stay in 5.

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Hi,

 

I voted other, I am not good in getting the correct percentages

for a given contract, so if 6D is only 50%, 3NT is a fine place,

but I would say, seeing both hands, you would like to bid 6D.

 

And since I dont play a relais system,3NT it is.

You face to bal. hands, with at most 31HCP, and thats it.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Hi everyone

 

This is a 'iffy'(poor?) slam. I would likely bid 3NT.

 

Unless you have some luck, 12 tricks just aren't there. A 4-1(or even a 5-0?) break in diamonds is not ruled out, care to play this hand with a 4-1 or perhaps a 5-0 trump break?

 

North has a minimum hand(he did rebid 1NT) with 3 weak trumps and no ruffing value so he should not move. South has some extra values, however, not he is not nearly so strong that he should bid slam by himself 'unless' a swing is needed or you judge that your team is hopelessly outclassed.

 

The bidding methods could stand some serious work. How do you invite slam based on a HCP value bid 'if' 4NT is ace asking?

 

I think that the hand holding the diamond suit 'overbid' facing a known

12-14(11-13?) balanced hand. Try playing this hand with Kxx of hearts rather than AKx of spades and you will see that this was a lucky(?) slam to make.

 

My compliments to the 3NT pair. They appear to be bidding to the proper contract and that is what I want while playing IMPs. They were simply unlucky that the other pair overbid and managed to get a lucky swing.

 

Regards,

Robert

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