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Edmunte1

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You hold in second seat, at unfavorable:

[hv=d=e&v=n&s=sq102hkj93d2cak1082]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

And bidding goes:

(1) - pass - (pass) - 1

(1) - ?

 

- 1 promises at least 4-4 in the black suits

What's your choice now and why?

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I'm thinking about 2N (limit+ with 4 trumps) and 4D (splinter). I don't want to bury partner for balancing but we need so little for game...

♠ QT2 ♥ KJ93 ♦ 2 ♣ AKT82

 

(1♣) - pa - (pa) - 1♥;

(1♠!) - ??

- 1♠ promises at least 4-4 in the black suits

 

Which is why I'm simply bidding the game. Everything rates to be favorably placed for Us.

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3 2 2 NT whatever shows inv+ with Hearts. Do I really need more then

Jx, AQxxx,xxx,xxx to make 4 Heart? And this example hand is quite weak for his bid. We may even have a slam opposite Kx, AQxxx,Axxx,Qxx - not that we are favourites to bid it, but I will surely bid at least game. And if he looks at xxx,AQxxx, KQJx,x and we fail to make it, so what.

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I'm thinking about 2NT (limit+ with 4 trumps) and 4D (splinter). I don't want to bury partner for balancing but we need so little for game...

I think 2NT could lead to trouble -- partner could (perhaps reasonably) think that I have a strongish hand unsuitable for a direct NT overcall.

 

I think those wanting to invite game are missing the problem: we could have a slam (is x Axxxxx Axxx xx enough?). But, I think I'd give up on that and bid a practical 4.

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You hold in second seat, at unfavorable:

Dealer: East
Vul: N/S
Scoring: IMP
Q102
KJ93
2
AK1082
 

And bidding goes:

(1) - pass - (pass) - 1

(1) -  ?

 

- 1 promises at least 4-4 in the black suits

What's your choice now and why?

2s now

 

really dislike a direct 4h, that would be much weaker hand for me. Less defense.

 

prefer direct 1heart over one club and get this hand off my chest and not trap pass.

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I play fit-jump, but i'm not sure what 4 is. If you have a reasonable suit and some vaules, maybe you've bid last round.

Anyway, i like to bid 4. It must show a good hand rather than a weak hand at this kind of sequence.

Also facing a balancing 1 overcall, i don't think slam is that great, otherwise a splinter 4 bid is perfect.

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I play fit-jump, but i'm not sure what 4 is. If you have a reasonable suit and some vaules, maybe you've bid last round.

Anyway, i like to bid 4. It must show a good hand rather than a weak hand at this kind of sequence.

Also facing a balancing 1 overcall, i don't think slam is that great, otherwise a splinter 4 bid is perfect.

This is an excellent point. Its just about impossible to hold a hand where you need to make a fit jump here, because you didn't overcall the last round. Yet, I hate to make excpetions for these auctions - but this may be just out of laziness.

 

4 logically should be a splinter then, even where "all" jumps are fitted.

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You hold in second seat, at unfavorable:

Dealer: East
Vul: N/S
Scoring: IMP
Q102
KJ93
2
AK1082
 

And bidding goes:

(1) _P (_P)  1

(1)  ?

 

- 1 promises at least 4-4 in the black suits

What's your choice now and why?

IMO 4 = 10, 3 = 9, 2 = 8, 2N = 7, 4 = 6, 3 = 3. (assuming that fit-jumps and splinters apply in this context). If you act in accord with the bible (Robson & Seagal version) , then 2N shows a pudding raise, so is less appropriate on this hand

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Assuming that 4D is a splinter, why are so many people who want to force to game rejecting this option?

Because a splinter is basically a shape based slam probe that promises a 9+ card trump fit.

I don't get your point so you'll have to spell it out for me.

 

Is this hand not good enough?

 

Do we need more trumps?

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If 4 must be a splinter due to my failure to bid before, then 3/4 must be a fitbid by the same argument. I'll bid some clubs if p is on that wavelength as well.

 

Otherwise I just bid 4. Neandertal bidding always has its charm.

Maybe I need coffee, I can't even follow Helene's logic!

 

I do agree that 4C can hardly be a splinter because we didn't make a TO double last round, but why is 3C necessarily a fitbid? Can't it be whatever you play (1C) - 1H - (p) - 3C as?

 

And I still don't understand why you would bid 4H when 4D is so much more descriptive.

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why is 3C necessarily a fitbid? Can't it be whatever you play (1C) - 1H - (p) - 3C as?

Depends what 3 would normally mean. Assuming that it would be a general constructive raise to the 3-level, yes, it could be that as well, unless we use 2N or 2 for that.

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Assuming that 4D is a splinter, why are so many people who want to force to game rejecting this option?

Because a splinter is basically a shape based slam probe that promises a 9+ card trump fit.

I don't get your point so you'll have to spell it out for me.

 

Is this hand not good enough?

 

Do we need more trumps?

Sorry, other responsibilities kept me from the forums for awhile.

 

♠ QT2 ♥ KJ93 ♦ 2 ♣ AKT82

 

Fine splinter opposite an opening bid... ...but pd didn't open, they balanced.

pd's balance can effectively be forced on some hands considerably weaker than an opening bid.

 

I want to be stronger, or be more shapely, or to have the shortness in Their Suit opposite a balancing 1 by pd for a splinter.

So swap the red suits or give me one less loser and I'd Splinter.

 

Since slams are rarer after They have opened the bidding in most "up the middle" systems, and since "hanging pd" is to be avoided,

 

I'm not making any slam probes with this hand, I'm simply bidding game.

I think that's the practical percentage action with this hand.

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My bid was 4, splinter, and no extras (14- hcp). LHO bid 4 and my partner who held [hv=s=s65hq10872dakq75c3]133|100|[/hv]

bid 5, one down. He considered 4 not a good bidding argueing that it should show controls in both black suits, and considering 3 then game as a much better bid.

What's your opinion about this?

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