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yer bid please


  

19 members have voted

  1. 1. yer bid please

    • 2S
      0
    • 2N
      4
    • 3H
      2
    • 3N
      1
    • other
      9
    • I would have bid first round
      2


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I think this is between pass (partner didn't preempt) and 3.  I think I'd choose the latter.

I can't believe this, what do you think 2 shows even by a passed hand? I was not even going to invite, my only concern is getting to the best game.

 

Although I don't agree with all the specific details, I think bid_em_up gave a sensible answer, in that he is looking for a route to the best game.

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Prefer 1nt directly over 1D opening.

I have noticed you seem to play this extremely light. General expert consensus is good 15 to 18, sometimes even bad 19. Lousy 15s wouldn't even qualify.

 

In general agree strongly. I just hate to pass any 14 hcp hand with a 5 card suit.

 

NV with 14 I choose 1nt if pass is my only other option.

1) 1nt

2) 1s

3) pass last choice. :)

 

I would pass if vul. with this hand.

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Okay, I don't understand. What DOES 2 show here by a passed hand?

Six hearts, four spades, and just below opening strength.

 

Considering the distribution, something like Qxxx-AJ10xxx-x-xx looks about right.

 

Arguably, 4 might be better, as this might be a swan hand, but I like the Qxxxx in diamonds. If they force with a second top diamond, far from clear defense, I have counters.

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2NT, but only before I realized the jump.

Take away a King and you have an invite,

but 2H is unsual, to say it mild.

 

I still bid 2H and if it is wrong, I let partner

explain, what he was thinking, he did not

open 2H, so all bets are off, with a bad

weak 2 he should bid 1H.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: 2H as showing 6-4 in the mayors makes

sense, but this would be an highly unsual

agreement, at least partner should not believe

I understand it, if he did make it up on the fly.

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I think 6-4 in the majors makes perfect sense: he chose not to pre-empt cause he had support for a major, and he probably has a bit too strong for a pre-empt but not enough to open even with his great shape, maybe 10 pts. If he had hearts only he could just balance with 1. Why does this need to be a specific agreement? Doesn't it make sense by itself?
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I think 6-4 in the majors makes perfect sense: he chose not to pre-empt cause he had support for a major, and he probably has a bit too strong for a pre-empt but not enough to open even with his great shape, maybe 10 pts. If he had hearts only he could just balance with 1. Why does this need to be a specific agreement? Doesn't it make sense by itself?

This falls into the category of actions that ideally do not need to be discussed, but practically only occur to most after it has come up, resulted in a bad score, and then was discussed.

 

Several examples exist.

 

1-2-2-P-

3-3NT as 6/4.

 

1NT-P-2(transfer)-2 as Michaels

 

P-P-1-2-

3-3 as club support but interest in a diamond lead

 

There are many others.

 

That's what beautiful about bridge forums. A multitude of folks have years of experience with this sort of thing and have reached conclusions about these auctions. The conclusions of many different experiences and styles are offered in a way that Beginner/Intermediate players might not otherwise have access to. Folks can then see how others view things and take the ideas back to partner, or toos them out, get a bad score, and discuss them later like many of us had to do before BBF.

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There's got to be a reason why partner didn't open with a preempt. Playing with a reasonable partner I'd be quite certain of sitting opposite a 7-9 count with 4-6 in the majors, maybe even a bad 10.

 

At IMPs it's more of a question to reach the best game than reaching game. Agree with bid_em_up and Josh, 3.

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