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I have been discussing system with a potential new f2f partner and thought it obvious that we should play splinter.

But he doesn't like it, since he thinks it is essential to know whether I have a singleton or a void.

He then mentioned that you could use the response of 3 NT to show an unknown void. Is this generally accepted? And how should you bid after the 3 NT?

 

Marianne

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Consider agreeing to make splinter bids only with singletons. Agree on strength (either a hand with opening strength, 4 card support and a singleton OR a hand that is worth a game force because of the shortness, 4 card support and a singleton).

 

There are schemes to show 2 ranges of splinter (most commonly the two strength ranges above, but it will work to differentiate singleton and void) with a bit more memory work (and the sacrifice of the jump to 3N for some other purpose)

Use cheapest double jump to show some void. Over 1H, 3S shows some void and 3N shows spade singleton! Then the next step asks for location (that ask will "eat" one possible answer but you bid 4M to show that void). It may be preferable to switch thing around - show the void splinter with the double jump shift and use the ambiguous bid to show some singleton - opener will almost always want to know where the void is, but may be able to sign off without asking about the singleton location so then the oppornents do not get free information.

 

This scheme may be a bit much for typical Beginner/Intermediate players. Playing a 3N contract with a 9 card major fit and a void is a possible "I forgot" danger that should not be ignored.

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This is how I play it after opening 1 of a major; not sure if it is mainstream. The splinter, singleton as well as void, shows 9-11 hcp or 18+ (will bid again if opener signs off). It is based on 4 card support for the major.

 

1 - 3 = Singleton or Void (you can't distinguish because 4 bypasses the trump suit)

1 - 4 = Void

1 - 4 = Void

 

1 - 3N = Unspecified singleton

 

4 asks where (4 = clubs)

 

...

 

1 - 4, 4, 4 = Void

 

1 - 3N = Unspecified singleton

 

4 asks where (4 = clubs) *

 

* With 18+ responder may choose not to splinter if he has a singleton club, because there is a risk that opener passes. Responder can choose to use Jacoby or the like.

 

...

 

The idea is that partner will (almost) always be interested in learning about a void, so you show it immediately. However, he may not want to know about a singleton and can sign off without asking for it. Either he can see where by looking at his own cards, or he is not interested because he has a minimum, e.g. no slam interest opposite 9-11.

 

Then he will not have revealed anything to the opponents.

 

Finally as a consequence, if 1MA - 2NT is your preferred game forcing raise, it will deny 9-11 or 18+ hcp with a singleton or void (club singleton possible if 18+ as outlined above).

 

Roland

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1♥ - 3♠ = Singleton or Void (you can't distinguish because 4♠ bypasses the trump suit)

1♥ - 4♣ = Void

1♥ - 4♦ = Void

 

1♥ - 3N = Unspecified singleton

 

why don't you play 1-3 as any specified singleton and 3NT asks

and 1-3NT as Void , then you can distinguish the voids and singletons.

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There was a thread about this earlier this year. My opinion on this is that void splinters occur too rarely for you to waste a bid on them. The bid you use may well be better used for something else. Also you can frequently identify the void with a second cue bid after a splinte anyway.
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I tend to agree with Ron (The Hog).

 

A different issue is in what situations splinters apply. Now if you agree that only the specific sequence

(-/pass) -/pass (-/pass) 1M

(pass) 4m

and maybe one or two other very specific sequences are splinters, then they are quite useful, provided that you invest sufficient time on discussing requirements and follow-ups, and practicing reevaluating opener's hand after the splinter. And provided that you use splinters only with hands that really fit the description.

 

Many play splinters in a lot of situations, including contested auctions, opener's rebid, responder's rebid, 3rd round, responding to a preempt, after 1NT openings etc. I'm not big fan of that. It leads to too many misunderstandings, and in contested auctions, natural fit-showing bids are more useful.

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There was a thread about this earlier this year. My opinion on this is that void splinters occur too rarely for you to waste a bid on them. The bid you use may well be better used for something else. Also you can frequently identify the void with a second cue bid after a splinte anyway.

Agree. We trashed void splinters after playing for 4 years. 2 years later they STILL haven't come up LOL.

 

We use 1 major - 3N as a preemptive raise with an outside card. This treatment occurs a lot more frequently.

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I have been discussing system with a potential new f2f partner and thought it obvious that we should play splinter.

But he doesn't like it, since he thinks it is essential to know whether I have a singleton or a void...

<snip>

From a practical POV,

a= any hand that wants to be in slam opposite a stiff will want to be in slam opposite a void.

 

b= the vast majority of hands that do not want to be in slam opposite a stiff will not want to be in slam opposite a void either.

 

Thus the "is it a stiff or void?" issue is a minor effect compared to the fact that it is a stiff or void.

 

 

Far more important is to make sure that

1= Your splinter is not an A, K, or Q.

 

2= Your splinters should =guarantee= values in all the side suits. So xxxxAxxxKQxxx is a fine splinter opposite a 1S opening; ...but not opposite a 1H opening.

...and something like xxxxxxxxAKQxx is not a good splinter opposite any 1level opening.

 

Remember that splinters are slam probes. You can't have any wide open suits in a slam.

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I know experts who will give up most conventions except for splinters. That is how valuable they are.

 

What is a splinter?

 

A splinter is a GF raise of partner's last bid suit showing a singleton or void (shortness) in the bid suit. The purpose of a splinter is to find slam on less than slam strength when the two hands fit particularly well together. Splinters are alertable.

 

How do splinters work?

 

When shortness is opposite weakness, game-strength hands may produce slam. How? The reason is "splinter math". Let's say you have a combined 26 HCP between the two hands for a 4S contract. Normally, 26 HCP would not be enough to consider slam. But if one partner has a singleton in a suit and the other partner has, say, 3 small, then those 26 HCP are spread among only 3 suits. 26 divided by 3 is 8 2/3. That is an average of 2 suits of AKQ and one suit of AKJ. That means there are probably no losers outside the splinter suit. Now suppose that opposite that singleton partner has KQx. That leaves 21 HCP in the other 3 suits. On average, that is AK or AQJ, which is plenty of losers.

 

So splinters allow you to find or avoid slam on game-strength hands.

 

What does a splinter show?

 

Since the shortness would not be as valuable without 4-card support, a splinter shows 4-card support unless the bidder previously denied 4-card support. Some common sense rules:

1) Do not splinter on a singleton ace because this fouls up the splinter math

2) Do not splinter with excess strength

3) Do not splinter on a singleton honor unless you have enough strength in your hand for a splinter after removing the honor

 

What bids are splinters?

 

In general, a splinter is an extra level jump in a new suit when a lower level bid in the same suit would be forcing. The following are considered standard splinters. Examples are with silent opps.

1) Double-jump shift Initial Response. When splintering for a minor suit opener, responder usually requires 5-card support. Examples:

1C 3H – 5-card club support, no 4-card major, GF, singleton or void in hearts

1H 4C – 4-card heart support, GF, singleton or void in clubs

1H 3S – 4-card heart support, GF, singleton or void in spades

1S 4H – 4-card spade support, GF, singleton or void in hearts. Make sure you discuss this bid. This is one of the few times that a jump to 4-of-a-major is not a sign-off.

 

2) Double-jump shift opener’s rebid. Examples:

1D 1S 4C = 4-card spade support, GF, singleton or void in clubs

1C 1H 3S = 4-card heart support, GF, singleton or void in spades

 

3) Double-jump shift in fourth suit. Examples:

1C 1H 1S 4D = 4-card spade support, GF, singleton or void in diamonds

1D 1S 2C 4H = 4-card club support, GF, singleton or void in hearts

 

4) Self-splinter after transfer. Examples:

1N 2D 2H 3S = 6-card heart suit, GF, singleton or void in spades

1N 2H 2S 4C = 6-card spade suit, GF, singleton or void in clubs

 

Other commonly played splinter bids – Discuss with partner before using:

* Opener double-jump in own suit: 1C 1H 4C = good 6-card club suit, GF, 4-card heart support

* Opener jump-reverse: 1C 1H 3D = INVITATIONAL 4-card heart raise, singleton or void in diamonds. This is one of the few splinters that are not GF.

 

What does partner of splinter bid?

 

The partner of the splinter bidder evaluates their hand for slam based on the splinter and signs off in the indicated trump suit to deny slam or q-bids or anything else to confirm slam. For a new splinter player, I have a simple guideline for the splinter partner to evaluate their hand: Remove all value for king, queen and/or jack in the splinter suit and half the value for an ace. If the remaining strength drops your hand below the minimum for your previous bidding, then deny slam. If the remaining strength is still enough for your previous bidding, then confirm slam.

 

Some examples using the guideline:

AQxxx Axx Kx xxx

You open 1S and partner responds 4D. What should you rebid? Answer: 4S sign-off. If you take the K from your hand, that leaves you with only 10HCP and not enough for a 1S opening bid. Bid 4S to deny slam. What if partner had splintered in clubs, instead? Then you would accept slam. You could accept by q-bidding 4D or 4H, but I think it is better to bid 4N immediately since you have stoppers in both red suits.

 

AQx QJxx AQx Qxx

You open 1N (15-17), partner responds 2H, transfer. You bid 2S and partner jumps to 4C, splinter. What should you rebid? Answer: 4D, q-bid and confirm slam interest. With 17 HCP, after removing the Q, you still have 15 HCP and enough for your 1N opener. Since you don't have a control in hearts, q-bid diamonds first to encourage partner to q-bid hearts or bid 4N. If partner denies a heart control by bidding 4S, you will pass.

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I have been discussing system with a potential new f2f partner and thought it obvious that we should play splinter.

But he doesn't like it, since he thinks it is essential to know whether I have a singleton or a void.

He then mentioned that you could use the response of 3 NT to show an unknown void. Is this generally accepted? And how should you bid after the 3 NT?

 

Marianne

Your partner wants to play splinter, he just wants to

know, if it is a void or Single, just Semantic ;)

 

But to say something more constructive:

Another option is to give up on splinter entirely and play

fit-jumps, which are played quite often after the auction

has gone competitive.

If you always play fit-jumps, you dont have a difference

between uncontested and contested auctions.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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OH - One more important point when using splinters: Because of "splinter math," you DO NOT splinter with highly distributional hands where the "game-force" nature of the hand is due to distribution rather than high card strength.

 

For example: Partner opens 1S, next player passes and you hold Qxxxx xxx KQxx x. Normally, over 1S you would respond 4S. Playing splinters, should you splinter 4C with this hand? NO. Bid 4S as usual.

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OH - One more important point when using splinters: Because of "splinter math," you DO NOT splinter with highly distributional hands where the "game-force" nature of the hand is due to distribution rather than high card strength.

 

For example: Partner opens 1S, next player passes and you hold Qxxxx xxx KQxx x. Normally, over 1S you would respond 4S. Playing splinters, should you splinter 4C with this hand? NO. Bid 4S as usual.

Why bid 4?

Isn't this a Limit Raise? 4+ trumps and 10-12 support points

 

Those may combine with pards ace and be worth 4 tricks.

You can make slam if pard has:

S A K x x x

H A Q

D A x x

C x x x

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OH - One more important point when using splinters: Because of "splinter math," you DO NOT splinter with highly distributional hands where the "game-force" nature of the hand is due to distribution rather than high card  strength.

 

For example: Partner opens 1S, next player passes and you hold Qxxxx xxx KQxx x. Normally, over 1S you would respond 4S. Playing splinters, should you splinter 4C with this hand? NO. Bid 4S as usual.

Why bid 4?

Isn't this a Limit Raise? 4+ trumps and 10-12 support points

 

Those may combine with pards ace and be worth 4 tricks.

You can make slam if pard has:

S A K x x x

H A Q

D A x x

C x x x

hmm... looks like 4S to me... but OK, you think it not a 4S bid.... fine... Let's make it weaker and more distributional:

 

How about this: Kxxxx xx Qxxxx x ... Respond 4S and not 4C

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