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1, wtp. You can't show this hand via a strong jump shift if you don't have specific agreements about continuations after a SJS, so you have to take captaincy.

 

After partner's 1NT I bid 6NT. If he bids 2 or 2 I ask for aces. Of course if he reverses I just bid 7NT.

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Hi,

 

two options:

 

#1 t/o followed by 4S

#2 direct 4S, gives up on slam, but most likely you will play it,

partner is a passed hand, you have 21, South has 12,

leaves 7 for your partner and North, do you make 6 in case

partner holds an Ace? Not likely.

 

Keep it simple

 

With regards

Marlowe

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helene, I think pard passed. 1 if from your RHO :huh:

 

Anyway, I think I'll start with dbl. We'll end in 4 97% of the time, but hey I don't think opps can bother us much, so I'll try for that 3% where pd has the magic keys.

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I would double, and not follow it up with 4S.

 

I'm not sure what I will do next, it depends on how the auction develops, but we are quite likely to want to play in 3NT (opposite xx xxxx J10xx xxx, particularly on a club lead). We might want to stop in 3S.

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Guest Jlall
Double seems really normal even for people who are allergic to Xing with 1 suiter type hands. You are extremely strong, have the boss suit and can control the auction in any circumstances.
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Start with double, and drive the hand to 4. I have nine and a half tricks in my hand alone. There are rare cases where 3 (or less) is the limit, but at IMPs, it is natural to take the risk.

 

Here, they can ruff our two club tricks. Unlucky. But against these jackals, it would have worked, even though we should be down two.

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