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2S Rebid


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Had a discussion on VG yesterday about this sequence:

 

1 - 1N

2 - 2

2

 

1N was by a passed hand, and is SF.

 

What kind of hand is implied by 2:

 

1. AKxxxx, x, xx, AQxx

2. AQJxx, xx, x, Axxxx

 

or is it something else?

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Hand 1 is typical. Hand 2 might have passed 2.

 

Although 2 certainly doesn't deny extra strength (responder is allowed to make a game try) I don't think it should promise extra strength either. I know some play that a minimum 6-4 must rebid 2 rather than 2 and if you have that agreement, this sequence does of course show extras

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In 2/1 the 2 shows a weak hand, with 6 or more , not enough for an invitational jump shift (if they are even on by a passed hand because you would have had the option to preempt).

 

I can't imagine bidding on.

I'd pass with either:

AKxxxx, x, xx, AQxx

AQJxx, xx, x, Axxxx

 

 

Opener knows responder is weak. With a great hand opener needs to make a forcing bid which they didnt.

 

2 must show a hand that hates . Probably a void.

Maybe 6 and 5? Or 5-5 or 6-4.

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First hand seems perfect. Second hand should take its lumps in 2.

Thats what I was discussing with the other commentators. They were saying a 'weak, distributional hand unsuitable for 2.

 

I said its best to play this as a strong sequence, and practically forcing.

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First hand seems perfect. Second hand should take its lumps in 2.

Thats what I was discussing with the other commentators. They were saying a 'weak, distributional hand unsuitable for 2.

 

I said its best to play this as a strong sequence, and practically forcing.

Correct... This is the point of the Yzerman series. With a weak hand and 6 rebid 2 directly over 1NT. Only introduce a minor when you hold a six card major when you ahve a strong hand. His arguement, which I supported in a number of threads was that hand 1 should be bid this way. His second argument wat that 1M-1NT-2m was almost "forcing". Responder with 2S could not pass even with 4 card in the m... he had to raise to 2M.

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I don't believe the auction should promise significant extras, the first hand is ideal. A nice minimum that will do great in either suit if it finds a fit is fine. Partner is allowed to raise and can do so much more accurately than if you had just rebid 2. Like if he has Qx Jxxxxx Kxx Kx he will raise when he would have passed a 2 rebid, and I will continue on to game because my hand is so pure.
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I don't believe the auction should promise significant extras, the first hand is ideal. A nice minimum that will do great in either suit if it finds a fit is fine. Partner is allowed to raise and can do so much more accurately than if you had just rebid 2. Like if he has Qx Jxxxxx Kxx Kx he will raise when he would have passed a 2 rebid, and I will continue on to game because my hand is so pure.

I think the point about having extras is valid, it's just that the extras may very well be shape.

 

You need a lot less HCP to continue bidding after 1M-1N;2C-2D; with some shapes than with others.

 

Nonetheless, I agree that

1. AKxxxxxxxAQxx

Should bid this way

This has 5 losers and 5/7 of the controls we need for 3N or 4M. We also have a D fit.

In my world, all of those are extra's compared to a minimum opening.

 

This OTOH

2. AQJxxxxx Axxxx

simply stinks on this auction and should pass 2D.

This is a minimum that has gotten worse as the auction progresses.

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I don't like to rebid 2S on all minimal hands. It seems a crime anytime I'm 6-5, and I would certainly pull to 2S with those hands.

 

So I'm voting for 6 spades, likely short diamonds, no game interest.

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Had a discussion on VG yesterday about this sequence:

 

1 - 1N

2 - 2

2

 

1N was by a passed hand, and is SF.

 

What kind of hand is implied by 2:

 

1. AKxxxx, x, xx, AQxx

2. AQJxx, xx, x, Axxxx

 

or is it something else?

I am a bit surprised that you are not playing BART

1s=1nt

2c(BART)

 

If not why not just pass 2D?

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nice posts by yzerman, though they include that dreaded US school phoney jump-shift on 63s which I terminantly hate :D

There's a treatment played by Karen McCallum and a few others where

 

1M-1N;3C! is an alertable "phony jump shift" that actually makes a decent amount of sense.

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If you play that 3C guarantees a phony JS then you must have some other way of showing a strong hand with clubs.

 

Perhaps more common is to play 1S-1NT-3C as a multi way bid. 3D asks and then:

 

3H = 5-4 in the majors, GF

3S = single suited GF

3NT = at least 5-4 in spades and clubs, GF.

 

Alternatively you could scrap the single suited hand and play that 3S shows at least 6-4 in the black suits.

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If you play that 3C guarantees a phony JS then you must have some other way of showing a strong hand with clubs.

 

Perhaps more common is to play 1S-1NT-3C as a multi way bid. 3D asks and then:

 

3H = 5-4 in the majors, GF

3S = single suited GF

3NT = at least 5-4 in spades and clubs, GF.

 

Alternatively you could scrap the single suited hand and play that 3S shows at least 6-4 in the black suits.

Thats how it was taught to me.

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I played this with Ch00 in the Spingold last year and it came up. And guess what, I actually didn't forget! (I vaguely remember I had 5-4 in the majors)

 

This is a gadget where the alerts could definitely work in your favor. If you bid 3C intending it as a natural jumpshift and partner alerts you can bid 3NT to show the hand with clubs. Only an unusually ethical player would then intentionally misbid at his or her next turn. Would you?

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If you play that 3C guarantees a phony JS then you must have some other way of showing a strong hand with clubs.

 

Perhaps more common is to play 1S-1NT-3C as a multi way bid. 3D asks and then:

 

3H = 5-4 in the majors, GF

3S = single suited GF

3NT = at least 5-4 in spades and clubs, GF.

 

Alternatively you could scrap the single suited hand and play that 3S shows at least 6-4 in the black suits.

I got the idea to switch 3 with 3NT. That way you can bid 3 first then pull when you have extra shape (5-5 on certain hands, else 6-5), instead of risking partner passing. And when you have the spade hand you can utilize all the bids 3NT+, maybe to show a side fragment of strength.

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If you play that 3C guarantees a phony JS then you must have some other way of showing a strong hand with clubs.

 

Perhaps more common is to play 1S-1NT-3C as a multi way bid. 3D asks and then:

 

3H = 5-4 in the majors, GF

3S = single suited GF

3NT = at least 5-4 in spades and clubs, GF.

 

Alternatively you could scrap the single suited hand and play that 3S shows at least 6-4 in the black suits.

I got the idea to switch 3 with 3NT. That way you can bid 3 first then pull when you have extra shape (5-5 on certain hands, else 6-5), instead of risking partner passing. And when you have the spade hand you can utilize all the bids 3NT+, maybe to show a side fragment of strength.

That is great... I am going to add that.. btw, as far as I can recall, the multi-purpose jumpshift into 3 was invented/named by Jeff Reubens of the BW: I think it is called Jeff's magic elixir.....

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Guest Jlall
I hate hate hate the idea of rebidding 2M with weak 6-4s. I love love love rebidding the 4 card minor 99 % of the time. As such 2S doesn't show extras to me. I would say a 5 card suit is very unlikely but possible. AKQJx xxx --- Jxxxx I think I would just have to rebid 2S over 2D.
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First hand seems perfect. Second hand should take its lumps in 2.

Thats what I was discussing with the other commentators. They were saying a 'weak, distributional hand unsuitable for 2.

 

I said its best to play this as a strong sequence, and practically forcing.

I don't think there is any hand unsuitable for playing 2 on this sequence, at least not one without extras wich has a reasonable chance of finding a better fit.

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