jillybean Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Dealer: South Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ K62 ♥ A43 ♦ KQT96 ♣ K2 West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass ? Here's a hand I played with Richard, your bid and why please? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Pass, because partner asked me a simple question and i'm willing to answer it truthfully. 6NT could work out well, albeit not that well when LHO turns up with a black suit AQ. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goobers Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 The 5 card suit isn't enough for me to risk bidding 6N, I only have 15 so I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 pass, fairly close but most of the hands I constructed (random 16 with at least one four card major) did not make slam good. I will say that by far the best method for solving this type of problem is simply to construct several hands consistent with the bidding and see how slam would do opposite each. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 For what its worth, I decided to bid 6N I thought that the chunky 5 card suit and the predominance of Aces and Kings meant that this hand was closer to a maximum than a minimum... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 I confess, I would have said 5♦, taking a chance that (if partner doesn't have help for me in diamonds) 5NT isn't too high. But yeah, the others are right, that's probably pushing it, even with 5 controls. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Playing 14-16 1NT (which I do), I would bid 6NT. Playing 15-17, this hand is not good enough, imho. Can 1 point in the range really make a difference? Guess so. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 If I had to guess the final contract now I would pass, but partner is still there so I like 5♦. If he has xx of diamonds he will sign off in 5NT (I hope that doesn't go down!) but we could surely have slam in diamonds if he has three or four, especially since he would then have an outside doubleton and I could probably get a ruff. I know one hand proves nothing, but lots like Qx KQxx Axx AJxx are a lousy 6NT but a great 6♦. Really the only risk to me is 5NT going down, but considering that even bidding 6NT is not hopeless by me, I think 5NT will be ok almost all the time. Also it is clear 5 level bids by me should be natural, not showing aces while accepting. That is one of the worst agreements out there, where people accept invitational 4NT bids by showing aces. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 If I had to guess the final contract now I would pass, but partner is still there so I like 5♦. Agree, 6♦ seems like a much wiser goal than 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Hi, pass, 4NT is quantitative.If you missed slam, due to the purityof your hand and the 5th diamond, toobad. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Close decision between 5D and pass imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 5♦ looks right. Should be a 5 bagger on the way to 5N / 6♦ / 6N. Strong 2344's start with 5N. We might also be able to back into a perfecto 6♥ using a club ruff as #12. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 I confess I would bid 6N: I wouldn't bid 5♦, since I think the chances of 6♦ being superior to 6N are too small to justify giving away information. For those who say: wait a second, partner asked me if I am maximum and i hold only 15 hcp... study Victor Mollo and, in particular, Walter the Walrus. This is NOT a 15 count: it is worth 16+ (or more). We have 5, count them, 5 controls and the KQ109x of diamonds plus Hxx in whichever (or both) majors partner has, which just has to give us extra chances. If you insist upon being a point counter, my understanding is that a more accurate rendition of the 4321 scale accords increased weight to A's and K's and decreased to Queens and Jacks.. and a 109 in a long suit, accompanying the KQ are worth something close to a Jack.. so I'd still get to 16+ that way. Now, I would add that 6N makes sense only if you are a skilled declarer player: while in game and partscore contracts, inferior defence can often make up for inferior declarer play, at the slam level there just isn't as much scope for error. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 For those who say: wait a second, partner asked me if I am maximum and i hold only 15 hcp... study Victor Mollo Ah good point, it seems like our side and their side can both make 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 17, 2007 Author Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Dealer: South Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ K62 ♥ A43 ♦ KQT96 ♣ K2 West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass 5♦ 5♦ here is natural, rejecting NT slam but suggesting ♦ slam if partner has help in ♦'s or specifically A♦? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 The 5♦ call is that rarest of beasts in modern bridge -- a natural bid. It says "Hey partner, I have a bunch of diamonds. Maybe 6♦ will be a good contract." It does not particularly "ask for help in diamonds" but rather asks "do you have a fit for diamonds?" The intent is that partner re-evaluate his or her hand for play in a suit. In particular: if partner has three or four diamonds and a side doubleton, this is great. Now we can score a potential extra trick by ruffing in the shorter hand, a trick that might not have been available in notrump. Partner should also tend to downgrade side suit jacks because these often come into play on the third or fourth round which may never come. So some hand like: AKxxKxAxxxQxx is absolutely perfect after the 5♦ call and should raise to 6♦ (and make easily). Something like: AKxxKQxxxxAxx is much worse and despite the prime values offers little play for slam, and should bid 5NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 I would certainly move on this control rich hand. 5D or 6NT are both possibilities, but I prefer 6NT. I can certainly have a 6322 shape with a 6 card minor to open 1NT, and 5D would suggest that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 Dealer: South Vul: NS Scoring: IMP ♠ K62 ♥ A43 ♦ KQT96 ♣ K2 West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass ? Here's a hand I played with Richard, your bid and why please? Assuming 1nt is 15-17 do you want to be in slam across from: AQ..KQxx...xx..AJxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 <!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> South </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> NS </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </th> <td> K62 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> A43 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> KQT96 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> K2 </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end --> West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass ? </span> Here's a hand I played with Richard, your bid and why please? Assuming 1nt is 15-17 do you want to be in slam across from: AQ..KQxx...xx..AJxx 6NT is playable - I have been in worse slams.Would you want to be in 6NT opposite:AQ..KQxx...Jx..Axxxx How do you distinguish between the 2 hands? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 17, 2007 Report Share Posted May 17, 2007 <!-- ONEHAND begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td> Dealer: </td> <td> South </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Vul: </td> <td> NS </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Scoring: </td> <td> IMP </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <span class='spades'> ♠ </th> <td> K62 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='hearts'> ♥ </span> </th> <td> A43 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='diamonds'> ♦ </span> </th> <td> KQT96 </td> </tr> <tr> <th> <span class='clubs'> ♣ </span> </th> <td> K2 </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> </td> </tr> </table><!-- ONEHAND end --> West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass ? </span> Here's a hand I played with Richard, your bid and why please? Assuming 1nt is 15-17 do you want to be in slam across from: AQ..KQxx...xx..AJxx 6NT is playable - I have been in worse slams.Would you want to be in 6NT opposite:AQ..KQxx...Jx..Axxxx How do you distinguish between the 2 hands? I guess that hand is possible but I thought unlikely, I would rebid 3c with that hand. Do not want to give up on 6clubs since partner denies a 4 card major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 18, 2007 Report Share Posted May 18, 2007 Assuming 1nt is 15-17 do you want to be in slam across from: AQ..KQxx...xx..AJxx 6NT is playable - I have been in worse slams.Would you want to be in 6NT opposite:AQ..KQxx...Jx..Axxxx How do you distinguish between the 2 hands? By bidding the suit where partner can tell his jack is working overtime and xx is not so good? Really though I don't mind 6NT that much because the diamonds are so good that they always have a chance to run. If we had the same hand without the 9 of diamonds I would be quite adamant that 5♦ is the only correct way to proceed if you bid at all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 18, 2007 Author Report Share Posted May 18, 2007 [hv=d=s&v=n&n=saq9hqj95da72cq84&s=sk62ha43dkqt96ck2]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass 6NT Pass Pass Pass Here is the full hand, do you think 4nt was too frisky? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted May 18, 2007 Report Share Posted May 18, 2007 Yes, 4N was clearly too much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 18, 2007 Report Share Posted May 18, 2007 [hv=d=s&v=n&n=saq9hqj95da72cq84&s=sk62ha43dkqt96ck2]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] West North East South - - - 1NT Pass 2♣ Pass 2♦ Pass 4NT Pass 6NT Pass Pass Pass Here is the full hand, do you think 4nt was too frisky? I would have just bid 3nt over 1nt...but.....good try. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted May 18, 2007 Report Share Posted May 18, 2007 4NT was too much for the same reasons that I would have accepted the invite as opener: hand evaluation. 4333 shape should be discounted. A hand with lots of Q's and J's should be discounted. A hand with only 4 controls should be very careful when inviting slam: we generally want to have 10 controls to play in 6N, and it is a rare 1N that holds 6 controls, especially when we hold 2 Aces. So I would have bid 3N. In fact, this is a perfect hand type for not even bidding stayman: just bid 3N over 1N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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