asc Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 [hv=d=n&v=b&s=s9hq8432d1042c10762]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] South's hand the bidding is:S____W____N____E ________ __ P___ 1♦P____1♠____P___2♦P____3♠____P___3NTP____4NT___P___5♥P____6NT___Double__ALL Pass 3♠=force4NT =Blackwood5♥ =2AAnd your lead is ....?the answer is here: http://www.freewebs.com/kotsev/ataka.pdf Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 I think pard has the ♠AQ. There's just enough room if we trust our opps bidding. By the way, I don't think there's a clear 'answer' to these doubles of 6N. I think we need to look at out hand and reason it out. If I held ♠Qxxxx for instance, I'd have a sneaking suspicion that pard is doubling for some other reason. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 Marshall Miles would say it's for a diamond. I have told him for years and I'll tell him untill I die, it's not, if partner has AK of diamonds it's just too bad. This double calls for a spade, period, they could so easily have 12 tricks by running diamonds if partner has AQ of spades. (After looking at the link) Like I said, just too bad, double doesn't call for this lead. Also double is foolish because it will tell declarer spades aren't breaking and a smart one would usually have a squeeze on north because the double told him how to play it, then instead of giving up a slam you give up a slam doubled. In this case that doesn't happen because we are kind enough to hold the heart queen, and diamond ten. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 This is clearly a lightner double, calling for an unusual opening lead. There are two possible unusual opening leads here, a spade and a diamond. Because of this, we quickly rule out a club or heart lead. If ruffing a trick was a consideration, I guess I might start a diamond. But that is not an issue. So partner thinks he can either cash two quick tricks, or establish a second trick on the opeing lead. There are a lot of hands partner could have. AQ of spades is one, but on this auction, he would expect the slam is down if the 1S-3S bidder can not run his spades. So, oddly enough, since the 1S-3S bidder is the STRONG guy, if partner is beating it on any lead, he can double (so with AQ he can double and it will in all likelhood go down no matter what I lead). Other hands are partner is AK of diamonds, that is far fetched. Partner could be KQ of diamonds and Ace of spades, but then they hardly have their bids (29 hcp maximum). All in all, I will go with the premise that if partner has two spade tricks on this auction they are not going anwhere (could be wrong), and lead a diamond. I doubt the 2D rebidder can take 12 tricks without setting up spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 I just saw the link too. (Hidden): Is there a player on the planet about a novice that would rebid 2♦ on the East hand? I think thats as preposterous as a diamond lead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goobers Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 Not only that, it also doesn't look like much of a Lightner x either. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
asc Posted May 4, 2007 Author Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 If somebody say -" I'l NEVER lead ♦ after this double, He'l NEVER beat the contract, even without DOUBLE B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenberg Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 Against suit slams, the double is often used to indicate a void and so judgment is required. Against NT slams, it is my opinion that a double asks for the first suit bid by dummy. Partners should discuss whether this means the first real suit (for example an auction might be 1C(precision) later ending in a slam with opener as dummy) or whether it just means first suit period. But I do not think it should be I have AK in declarer's suit. For one thing, it will virtually never happen. Partners are not going to be able to figure out variations, and even if they could, doubler will not know that partner will be able to figure it out. So the double of a NT slam should tell partner to follow exactly the agreed upon lead. Don't think, just do it. I seriously doubt that the agreement should be to lead declarer's suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 When does partner want a diamond lead? He needsAKKQ+spade stopper (A or K of spades if KQ of diamonds, any spade stopper if KQJ of diamonds) When does partner want a spade lead? He needsAKAQK+diamond stopperK+ace of heartsK+ace of clubs The second one is so much more likely that even having the discussion makes little sense to me. You can't cater to everything, so you cater to what is (MUCH) more likely. They could just as easily be running diamonds to make when partner needs a spade lead to set, like slight changes to the hands KJT9xxAKxAKxx xxxxAKQJxxQJx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 spade. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 spade. ditto, next hand I might lead a D without an x. A diamond lead might very well be a passive lead on this auction without the x so without x ..D. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 4, 2007 Report Share Posted May 4, 2007 I can think of a good reason I'd lead a ♦ on this bidding: I hold the ♦AK. But then I'd be doubling it myself ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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