DWM Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 [hv=d=w&s=sat9hk9da9642c982]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] After (P) - 2S - (P) I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct? IF the bidding continues (P) - 2S - (P) - P(3H) - P - (4H) do you do anything now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 Dealer: West Vul: ???? Scoring: IMP ♠ AT9 ♥ K9 ♦ A9642 ♣ 982 After (P) - 2S - (P) I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct? IF the bidding continues (P) - 2S - (P) - P(3H) - P - (4H) do you do anything now? 1) I bid 3s never pass...I have 3 spades yes?2) Now you force me to pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 After (P) - 2S - (P) I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct? Incorrect. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 I'm not sure that passing partner's 2♠ opening is that clear cut. The decision depends an awful lot the partner's agreements about second seat weak 2s. Give partner a reasonable opening (say) ♠ QJ7xxx♥ Axx♦ xx♣ xx And game depends on the Spade hook. Reasonable people will differ about the best way to advance with this hand. Some people (not me mind you) would advocate 3♦ as a fit non jump. Others might suggest 2NT as some kind of asking bid (feature with max, shortness ask, OGUST, what have you). Other's might prefer simply to jump to 4♠ and pray. My choice will (obviously) depend on the tools available to the partnership. However, I lean towards 2NT: If we're playing OGUST, I'll bid 4♠ opposite a "good hand"If we're playing "show feature with max" I'll try game opposite a maxIf we're playing shortness, I'll bid game opposite club or heart shortness Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
glen Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct? No, not correct. 3♠s, and not some 4-3-3-3, and not soft values, equals 3♠ bid. However another consideration is if the weak two can be good, we could have a nice 4♠ contract: ♠: KQxxxx♥: Axx♦: xx♣: xx So if this hand would not be rare for the partnership style, I bid 2NT, assuming it asks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 (P) - 2S - (P) I assume you do not take any action as both ops have passed, is this correct? No! I bid 3♠. Many player pass 1- or 2- suited hand close to opening strength in first seat. We have 9 ♠ and it's quite obvious that opps have at least 8♥ (because partner won't have a 4card ♥ suit). So opps have a clear 3♥ contract and a good chance to make 4♥, if partner is at the minimum end of the possible strength. If partner has values outside of ♠, than 4♥ is probably down. Since 4♠ won't make it does not seem to be a good defense.So over 4♥ I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skjaeran Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 This depends on your style. But I'd never pass unless playing with Marty Bergen. :P Playing my regular style, I'd try for game via 2NT. Playing a less constructive style, I'd raise to 3♠ as a tactical ploy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goobers Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 When you pass and opps reach their cold heart game, next time you'll know not to pass (that's how I learned!) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 27, 2007 Report Share Posted April 27, 2007 3♠ is clear. I've gone for 300 before. I hope you aren't characterizing 3♠ as "poker" and pass as "bridge". Its the other way around. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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