kenrexford Posted April 19, 2007 Report Share Posted April 19, 2007 [hv=d=s&v=n&n=skxxhqjxxdxxxcxxx&w=shaxxxdc&e=sqjxxxhk10xxdxcjxx&s=shdc]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] An incomplete hand, I know... The bidding: South opened 1♦, E-W passing throughout. North responded 1♥. South rebid 2♣, alerted as strong and forcing. North bid 2♦, alerted as somewhat waiting. South rebid 2NT, alerted as showing a "flawed 2NT call." North bid 3♣. South ended the auction by bidding 3NT. On West's lead of a small heart, presumably fourth best, South called for an honor from dummy, and East won the King. East now shifted to a diamond, won by West with the Queen when Declarer put in the Jack. West switched to a small spade. A debate ensued. West claimed that East should have continued hearts. This allows E-W to set up a third heart trick. Adding in the diamond Queen and club King (held by West) gives E-W five tricks before N-S get 9, for the set. The spade continuation allowed N-S to get 9 before E-W got five, allowing N-S to make game. East countered. East switched to a diamond, in case South was Axx-x-AKJ1098-Axx. The heart would be the ninth trick for N-S, whereas passive defense will hold N-S to eight tricks. East felt that West, if not holding three minor cards, should switch back to hearts himself, knowing that East must have the 10 for South's play at trick one. East felt that the diamond switch maintained flexibility for the defense. West responded that East's line catered to a very strange layout and was impractical and silly. West also contended that the location of the heart 10 was still unknown. North, a pro, agreed with West, as did a few pros who were polled. Any thoughts on this one? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted April 19, 2007 Report Share Posted April 19, 2007 IMO West is right. I don't get the 3♣ bid but hey I have never played that method. Why wouldn't North pass 2NT or bid 3♦, South's first suit? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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