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Correct slam bidding


firmit

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[hv=d=s&v=n&s=sa10xxhaxdakxxxxcx]133|100|Scoring: IMP

1-1

1-2*

2-2

3-4NT[/hv]

 

Now what - just played on BBO. As south - I feel partner has showed his hand well.

 

Edit: 4NT is 03/14 RCKB

 

4SF is accepted, and slam invit is also accepted, the way I see it. He must accept my diamonds, given him not bidding 3. Right? He might very well have a solid 6 card heart-suit or at least KQJxx of hearts. And the ace of clubs, he would not ask with no keycards himself. Should I be afraid of him passing my 5 respond playing 03/14? Guess this is a good example of why 14/30 is better...

 

For you who played, and bid the hand correctly, you'll know North has K KQJxxxx Jx AKx.

 

My respons - the fatal 7 which was DBL, and the magic lead of a heart to RHO's void. Trumphs was 4-1 - the ugly way - down 2.

 

Should I correct after the double? Should I flee to 7/NT?

Is 14/30 a perfect example of superiority here?

Any thougths on 1-2 as GF slam invit as an alternative auction?

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What was 4NT - was is RCKBW?

You have 4 key cards. Pard will now know what to do.

 

Did you bid 7D over 4NT?

Thats too unilateral for me.

 

Pard asked a question, why not respond and see wahts up?

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Why not raise partner's 2 bid? You already have essentially denied three hearts, so Ax is great support. Then there could have been no confusion.

 

Presuming you are taking 4NT as rkc, which 99.99% of people there would mean it as, then it's certainly for diamonds and you should just answer correctly, even with a 5 bid. Partner could then have counted all the keycards and tricks for 7NT. Here I guess he was worried you had some hand including a heart void.

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Any thoughts on 1-2 as GF slam invite as an alternative auction?

I do play this structure (as opposed to wjs).

 

The way I play it is game forcing, it shows no more than a one loser suit opposite void, and with at least a King outside. When this hand type comes up, the bid works quite well. Opener bids 2N without a fit, any other bid implies fit and is a cuebid in support of responders major. Responder still can cuebid over a 2N response, essentially saying, "I dont care about trump support, the suit is solid, please bid controls". It is not necessarily a "strong" jump shift in the old fashioned terms of 18-19 hcp (although it still can be). It is usually more like hands similar to:

 

AKQ109xx x Axx xx or

KQJ10xxx x Kxx Ax or

AQJ10xx xx AKx xx, etc.

 

The idea is to set trumps immediately, establish whether or not there is a fit and if so, start exploring controls. It works for my partnership(s).

 

However, in your given auction, as already suggested by jdonn, why 3? 3 is much better. The 2 bid should promise 6+ in this sequence, and Ax is now adequate support.

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Why not raise partner's 2 bid? You already have essentially denied three hearts, so Ax is great support. Then there could have been no confusion.

 

Presuming you are taking 4NT as rkc, which 99.99% of people there would mean it as, then it's certainly for diamonds and you should just answer correctly, even with a 5 bid. Partner could then have counted all the keycards and tricks for 7NT. Here I guess he was worried you had some hand including a heart void.

Why not raise hearts.... excellent point!

 

I stand corrected - on all levels!

 

You nailed my partners analysis

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Totally disagree with 3 - you've got to support 's now, since you've denied three card support already.

 

You've bid yourself into a corner now. The only solution is to give the correct response to RKCB, and hope partner is able to make a good decision.

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Agree that 3 is better than 3, but I also think a straight 3 (instead of 2) would be better.

 

Over 3 pard would probably bid 3, after which I can later decide whether to bid 4NT (RKCB) or avoid a mixup and simply support in 4.

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