Cascade Posted March 31, 2007 Report Share Posted March 31, 2007 On the auction: 1♦ (2NT) ... where 2NT shows clubs and hearts we have a cue-bid of 3♣ to show a good diamond raise. But what if the 2NT bid showed both majors. How can you show a good diamond raise then? Does anyone use some good science here? Also and perhaps more importantly if we change the first auction so that we opened 1♣ when whatever two suits 2NT showed we have no cheap cue-bid available. What are you methods there - 1♣ (2NT) ? Thanks in advance ... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 31, 2007 Report Share Posted March 31, 2007 Just play as you usually do: use cheapest cue to show a good raise, which will, of course, have to be a tad stronger because you're forcing to the 4 level.. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted April 1, 2007 Report Share Posted April 1, 2007 Try transfer advances in all competing auctions. Advancer always has a rebid to get 2nd piece out: eg. stuff here + fit; control here + slam try; etc. Opener denies super distribution if he accepts taking some cases off this auction. Most that's left is JUDGMENT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted April 1, 2007 Report Share Posted April 1, 2007 Since 2NT is artificial and forcing, you should define what double means.You could use dbl to show a weak/strong support, so that the simple 3m shows a good/bad rise. This works both with 3!C and 3!D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BillHiggin Posted April 1, 2007 Report Share Posted April 1, 2007 Just play as you usually do: use cheapest cue to show a good raise cheap = raise is somewhat outdated.BWS specifies cheap = cheap, which is easier to remember and applies equally well to auctions where there is no suit named by our side. Danny Kleinman has a better suggestion in the March TBWHe suggests dear = raise unless the opponents suits are non-touching (then cheap = cheap works best again). cheap = raise is the least efficient of all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted April 1, 2007 Author Report Share Posted April 1, 2007 What does cheap = cheap mean? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
twcho Posted April 2, 2007 Report Share Posted April 2, 2007 I guess cheap = cheap means:cheap cue = lower suit other than the overcaller's suitswhile expensive cue = higher suit other than the overcaller's suits. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BillHiggin Posted April 2, 2007 Report Share Posted April 2, 2007 What does cheap = cheap mean? Kleinman's suggestion summarized:With no suit to raise, cheap-cheap: use the cheapest cue of their suits to show a good bid in the cheapest of their non-suits (and he used dear as the opposite of cheap - so dear-dear also applies) When partner has bid a suit, he suggests dear-old (words chosen partly to make a pun as in dear old danny). This allows one to use the cheap cue to show the 4th suit while preserving the option of returning to partners suit. This situation is handled very poorly by cheap=raise. He specifies an exception (which logic clearly supports) when their two suits are non-touching - return to cheap-cheap even if partner has bid a suit. In the specific case of unusual Nt, cheap-cheap (hear the birdie) is equivalent to low-low. The more general case is better described by cheap-cheap. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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